Medical Licensing (MD/DO) · Independent exam preparation
ANZCA Final Examination: Clinical Decisions and Applied Practice Study Guide
Practise airway planning, perioperative risk, crisis management and specialist anaesthetic decisions through 60 focused concepts and original clinical questions.
By CertMedbry · Updated 18 October 2026
Build defensible anaesthetic plans, recognise deterioration and explain the findings that change management. This selective guide develops clinical integration across ANZCA roles in practice, clinical fundamentals and every specialised study unit. Appendix Five of the ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Curriculum is the full examination scope; these 60 concepts provide focused starting points for deeper study and discussion.
Try 20 free practice questionsWhat is the exam format?
Check the question types, timing and outline before planning your revision.
Which examination and pathway does this guide cover?
The standard trainee Final examination, taken during advanced training, assesses integration of knowledge, judgement and skills in realistic anaesthetic scenarios. The Primary examination is a separate basic-training assessment. ANZCA also uses the historical descriptions Part 1 and Part 2 when describing preparation courses; this guide uses the current name Final examination.
ANZCA Anaesthesia exams · ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program
How many questions and viva stations are there, and how long are they?
The standard Final examination has 150 MCQs in 150 minutes, 15 SAQs in 150 minutes, two medical vivas of 15 minutes each and eight anaesthesia vivas of 15 minutes each. The MCQ and SAQ examinations are held on the same day. These are component durations, not a single continuous examination duration.
What is established about delivery, adaptivity and item styles?
ANZCA describes written MCQ and SAQ components and oral medical and anaesthesia vivas, with listed examination venues. The examination webpage does not specify computer-adaptive delivery, a particular written-interface technology or the number of options in official MCQs. This guide's four-option single-best-answer questions are independent learning drills; preparation must also include SAQ and viva practice.
How many questions are scored or unscored pretest items?
The published format specifies 150 MCQs. ANZCA's examination webpage does not publish a separate scored-versus-unscored breakdown, so no pretest-item count is stated here.
Which outline versions and dates apply?
The curriculum is v1.14, December 2025, including Appendix Five: Final Examination Learning Outcomes. The Training Program Handbook is v2.13, October 2026. The examination webpage is updated September 2026. Curriculum approval was recorded in November 2025 and publication in December 2025; a separate universal curriculum effective date is not stated. Use sitting-specific instructions for examination arrangements.
ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Curriculum v1.14, December 2025 · ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Handbook v2.12, December 2025 · ANZCA Anaesthesia exams
What are the assessment weights, and are content-domain percentages published?
Handbook v2.13, October 2026, section 2.14.2 confirms MCQ 20%, SAQ 20%, medical vivas 12% and anaesthesia vivas 48%. These are assessment-component weights. Appendix Five does not assign percentages to the three content domains or individual topics. This guide's allocation is a selective study structure, not an official examination blueprint weighting.
ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Handbook v2.12, December 2025 · ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Curriculum v1.14, December 2025
How are the vivas scheduled from 2026.1?
From 2026.1, the vivas run over three days: four anaesthesia vivas on Thursday, four anaesthesia vivas on Friday and two medical vivas on Saturday. ANZCA describes a quarantine process for fairness. Candidates should use their sitting-specific instructions for attendance arrangements.
What passing requirements are stated for standard trainees?
The September 2026 webpage requires at least 40% in each written component for invitation to the vivas. Overall success requires at least 50% overall, a pass in the anaesthesia viva section and a pass in at least one other section. Candidates must pass at least four of eight anaesthesia vivas with at least 5/10 each. Scores of 3/10 or less in three or more anaesthesia vivas result in failure. These requirements cannot be inferred from this guide's drill scores.
How does the SIMG examination pathway differ?
The current examination webpage states that specialist international medical graduates required to sit the Final examination undertake the medical and anaesthesia vivas without the written components. Their eligibility and passing rules are described separately. This guide consistently uses the standard trainee pathway for its format discussion; SIMG candidates should apply their own pathway requirements.
How should clinical sources and pilot guidance be interpreted?
The curriculum establishes examinable scope. Clinical decisions are supported separately by professional documents and society guidance. ANZCA PG03, Guideline for the management of major regional anaesthesia and analgesia, is labelled 2026 PILOT. Its recommendations must retain that status when compared with approved policies and other guidance. Its adrenaline recommendation for adult LAST cardiac arrest requiring CPR differs materially from the ASRA checklist; the relevant concept explains both protocols explicitly. The fixed adult arrest dose must not be generalised to children.
ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Curriculum v1.14, December 2025 · ANZCA PG03 Guideline for the management of major regional anaesthesia and analgesia 2026 — PILOT · ASRA Local Anesthetic Systemic Toxicity Checklist, 2020 v1.1 · Guideline 12.2 – Paediatric Advanced Life Support (PALS)
This guide targets the standard advanced-training ANZCA Final examination in Australia and New Zealand. FANZCA is the specialist fellowship qualification, with requirements beyond passing this examination. These independent educational materials are not official ANZCA questions or a measure of examination readiness.
Outline used: ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Curriculum v1.14, December 2025, including Appendix Five: Final Examination Learning Outcomes; Training Program Handbook v2.12, December 2025; examination webpage updated September 2026. The workbook label FANZCA names the fellowship qualification rather than a separate examination. This preview maps that label to ANZCA's officially documented Final examination within the fellowship pathway, preserving the assigned slug.
60 key concepts: understand, apply and avoid the traps
Work through the questions by exam domain. Explain the answer in your own words, try the example, then check the common pitfall.
ANZCA roles in practicenot stated
1.How does a medical expert turn competing risks into an anaesthetic plan?
Expert judgement connects the patient's physiology, procedural demands and consequences of failure. A useful plan identifies the dominant hazard, explains why the chosen technique addresses it and states what finding would trigger a change. Pre-anaesthesia consultation supplies the clinical information and patient preferences needed for that judgement. The discriminating skill is prioritisation: a technically feasible technique may still be unsuitable when rescue would be difficult or postoperative support inadequate.
Apply it
A patient with limited respiratory reserve needs painful surgery. Compare analgesic benefit, ventilation risk and available postoperative observation, then state which risk determines your technique and what deterioration would trigger escalation to a higher level of care.
Common pitfall: Choosing a familiar technique without explaining its relationship to the patient's dominant risk produces a procedural description rather than a defensible clinical decision.
ANZCA PG07 Guideline on pre-anaesthesia consultation and patient preparation 2024
2.Which risks belong in an individualised consent discussion?
Consent requires understandable information about the proposed anaesthetic, reasonable alternatives and risks relevant to the particular patient. Relevance includes the likelihood and seriousness of harm and the patient's own priorities. A generic list cannot establish whether someone understands the decision. Ask what matters to the patient, explain how that changes the balance between options and check understanding before recording the agreed plan.
Apply it
A professional singer is particularly concerned about voice changes after airway instrumentation. Explain the airway options and relevant risks in accessible terms, explore acceptable alternatives and document how this concern influenced the shared anaesthetic decision.
Common pitfall: A signed form or exhaustive complication list does not replace dialogue, understanding or a discussion of alternatives that matter to the individual patient.
ANZCA PS26(A) Position statement on informed consent for anaesthesia or sedation 2021
3.What makes an anaesthetic handover clinically useful?
A useful handover transfers responsibility together with current findings, relevant treatments, unresolved problems and explicit actions. Progressive weakness during neuraxial analgesia is an active emergency concern, especially with back or radicular pain: epidural haematoma or abscess may compress neural structures. The handover must communicate the need for urgent investigation and specialist management, with MRI preferred when imaging is required under ANZCA PG03 2026 PILOT. Suspending an infusion must not delay that pathway.
Apply it
A patient arrives in recovery with increasing bilateral leg weakness and new back pain during epidural analgesia. Communicate the baseline examination, progression, drug and anticoagulant exposure, and explicitly transfer ownership of urgent spinal imaging and specialist assessment.
Common pitfall: Handing over a deficit as an expected block effect can delay recognition of compression. Listing observations without assigning the urgent actions leaves responsibility unclear.
ANZCA PG03 Guideline for the management of major regional anaesthesia and analgesia 2026 — PILOT · ANZCA PS41(G) Position statement on acute pain management 2023
4.How should a leader organise a perioperative crisis response?
Crisis leadership creates a shared diagnosis and coordinates actions that must occur simultaneously. State the suspected emergency, summon appropriate help and allocate named tasks with confirmation. Cognitive aids support completeness while clinical observations determine whether treatment is working. In suspected malignant hyperthermia, trigger cessation, oxygenation, dantrolene preparation and monitoring require coordination. The leader should repeatedly reassess priorities rather than becoming absorbed in one technical task.
Apply it
During rapidly rising carbon dioxide and rigidity after triggering anaesthesia, announce suspected malignant hyperthermia. Assign separate clinicians to obtain dantrolene, manage ventilation, contact additional support and record events while you coordinate reassessment and the response.
Common pitfall: An unallocated request for someone to obtain treatment may produce duplication or omission. Effective leadership makes task ownership and completion visible to the team.
5.How can health advocacy change perioperative preparation?
Health advocacy identifies barriers that prevent a patient from receiving or understanding appropriate care. A consultation should establish communication needs, access to medicines and practical capacity to follow the proposed plan. Adapt information and involve appropriate support so the patient can participate in decisions. The important distinction is between providing instructions and establishing that those instructions are usable in the patient's circumstances, including after discharge.
Apply it
A rural patient reports unreliable transport and difficulty understanding written medication instructions. Arrange an understandable preparation plan and coordinated follow-up, then check that travel and support arrangements permit the proposed timing and postoperative care to occur.
Common pitfall: Labelling a patient non-adherent before identifying communication or access barriers mistakes a remediable system problem for an individual failure to cooperate with treatment.
ANZCA PG07 Guideline on pre-anaesthesia consultation and patient preparation 2024 · ANZCA PS26(A) Position statement on informed consent for anaesthesia or sedation 2021
6.How do absolute risk reduction and number needed to treat inform counselling?
Absolute risk reduction is the control event risk minus the intervention event risk over a specified period. Number needed to treat is its reciprocal when risks are expressed as proportions. These measures show the scale of benefit in a population resembling the study participants. Relative reductions alone can exaggerate perceived benefit when baseline risk is low. Counselling should retain the outcome, time horizon and uncertainty alongside the calculated number.
Apply it
In a hypothetical trial, complications occur in 12% of controls and 8% of treated patients over 30 days. Calculate a four-percentage-point absolute reduction and an NNT of 25, then explain the outcome and follow-up period to a patient.
Common pitfall: Using 4 rather than 0.04 in the reciprocal gives the wrong NNT. A trial's NNT also cannot be transferred unchanged to every baseline-risk group.
ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Curriculum v1.14, December 2025 · Chapter 15: Interpreting results and drawing conclusions | Cochrane
7.What does a confidence interval reveal about an estimated treatment effect?
A confidence interval describes statistical uncertainty around an estimated effect under the analysis assumptions. For a risk ratio, an interval crossing one includes both benefit and harm relative to no difference. This does not establish equivalence or prove that treatment has no effect. Clinical interpretation asks whether the interval includes effects large enough to matter, alongside study validity, precision and applicability to the patient being considered.
Apply it
A hypothetical study reports a complication risk ratio of 0.80 with a 95% confidence interval of 0.45–1.40. Explain that the estimate favours benefit but remains compatible with substantial benefit or harm, making a confident efficacy claim unjustified.
Common pitfall: A non-significant result is not evidence of equivalence. Equivalence requires a suitable design and prespecified margins, rather than merely an interval containing no difference.
ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Curriculum v1.14, December 2025 · Chapter 15: Interpreting results and drawing conclusions | Cochrane
8.When must withdrawal of consent change the plan in New Zealand?
New Zealand's Code presumes competence unless there are reasonable grounds to believe otherwise, and Right 7 protects refusal of services and withdrawal of consent. A competent adult's change of mind requires the proposed intervention to stop while the decision and any immediate safety needs are clarified. Prior agreement does not make consent irrevocable. Assess understanding and voluntariness without treating disagreement with clinical advice as evidence of incapacity.
Apply it
Before any sedative is given, a competent adult in a New Zealand theatre clearly withdraws consent for an elective procedure. Pause preparation, clarify their concerns and inform the procedural team that the intervention cannot proceed on the earlier consent.
Common pitfall: A completed consent form does not override a current competent refusal. These New Zealand statutory rights should not be presented as identical legislation in every jurisdiction.
New Zealand Code of Health and Disability Services Consumers' Rights
9.How should a medication error be managed professionally?
A medication error requires immediate assessment of what was administered, the likely physiological consequences and the treatment or observation needed. Accurate identification of the drug and concentration guides that response. Professional management also includes clear documentation, appropriate patient communication and reporting through the organisation's safety process. Examining storage, labelling and workflow helps identify conditions that enabled the error, allowing changes that protect subsequent patients.
Apply it
An incorrectly selected syringe is recognised immediately after injection. Identify its contents and administered amount, assess the patient and institute appropriate monitoring, then document the event and arrange transparent communication and a review of how selection failed.
Common pitfall: Focusing first on who is to blame delays assessment and overlooks system contributors. Absence of immediate harm does not make the event irrelevant to patient safety.
ANZCA PG51(A) Guideline for the safe management and use of medications in anaesthesia 2021 · ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Curriculum v1.14, December 2025
10.How does clinical audit differ from collecting complication counts?
Clinical audit compares actual practice with an explicit standard, identifies a gap and evaluates whether a targeted change closes it. Raw complication counts alone may reflect changing case mix or workload. A useful audit defines the eligible population, denominator, standard and measurement period before collecting data. Repeating measurement after an intervention distinguishes a completed improvement cycle from a descriptive report that has not demonstrated better practice.
Apply it
A department reviews whether quantitative neuromuscular recovery is documented before extubation. Define eligible cases and the monitoring standard, measure compliance, introduce a practical workflow change and repeat measurement using the same definitions to evaluate the effect.
Common pitfall: A lower event count after an intervention is hard to interpret without comparable denominators. An audit recommendation is not evidence that the proposed change actually worked.
ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Curriculum v1.14, December 2025 · ANZCA PG18 Guideline on monitoring during anaesthesia 2025
ANZCA clinical fundamentalsnot stated
11.When should awake tracheal intubation be considered?
Awake tracheal intubation should be considered when predictors suggest difficult airway management and loss of consciousness could remove essential safety margins. Maintaining spontaneous ventilation and airway tone can preserve options while the trachea is secured. The decision depends on the whole airway problem, including ventilation, aspiration risk, physiological reserve and rescue access. A difficult laryngoscopic view alone does not describe all the consequences of induction.
Apply it
A patient has restricted mouth opening, progressive upper-airway symptoms and limited access for emergency rescue. Explain why preserving spontaneous ventilation during airway securing may be preferable, and prepare a supported awake approach with an explicit unsuccessful-attempt plan.
Common pitfall: Assuming a new intubation device makes induction safe overlooks whether oxygenation and rescue would remain possible if the initial approach failed after consciousness was lost.
Difficult Airway Society guidelines for awake tracheal intubation in adults
12.How do priorities change in cardiac arrest caused by major trauma?
Traumatic arrest commonly reflects an empty circulation, hypoxia or obstructed venous return. [ANZCOR Guideline 11.10.1](https://www.anzcor.org/home/adult-advanced-life-support/guideline-11-10-1-management-of-cardiac-arrest-due-to-trauma) prioritises haemorrhage control, restoration of circulating volume, airway opening and relief of tension pneumothorax over conventional CPR interventions unless a medical arrest probably preceded the injury. Perform CPR simultaneously when resources permit without delaying these treatments. Adrenaline cannot replace blood volume or relieve mechanical obstruction.
Apply it
After major chest and pelvic trauma, a patient loses cardiac output with substantial bleeding and suspected tension pneumothorax. Allocate simultaneous haemorrhage control, volume restoration, airway support and chest decompression; chest compressions must not prevent these interventions. A witnessed collapse before a minor collision would instead raise suspicion of a primary medical arrest.
Common pitfall: Treating trauma-associated PEA as only a drug-and-compression problem can leave its reversible cause untreated. The sequence of collapse and injury helps distinguish traumatic arrest from a medical arrest followed by trauma.
Guideline 11.10 Resuscitation in Special Circumstances · Guideline 11.2 – Protocols for Adult Advanced Life Support · Guideline 11.10.1 Management of Cardiac Arrest due to Trauma
13.How is tracheal placement confirmed before induction after awake intubation?
Awake intubation should be followed by a two-point check before inducing anaesthesia: visual confirmation of the tube within the trachea and capnographic confirmation of ventilation through it. These checks address different failure modes. A tube passing through the mouth or apparent misting does not establish tracheal placement. Confirmation while spontaneous ventilation is preserved avoids converting an uncertain airway into a more hazardous problem after induction.
Apply it
A tube has been advanced over an awake flexible scope, but the operator did not clearly see its final position. Keep the patient awake, obtain visual confirmation and establish an appropriate capnographic trace before administering induction medication.
Common pitfall: Successful scope passage or a single suggestive sign is insufficient. Inducing anaesthesia before both checks sacrifices the safety advantage of the awake technique.
Difficult Airway Society guidelines for awake tracheal intubation in adults
14.How should unsuccessful awake intubation attempts change the strategy?
DAS limits awake tracheal intubation to three attempts, with one further attempt permitted by a more experienced operator: a 3 + 1 limit. Each failure requires reassessment and a meaningful change rather than repetition of an unchanged approach. Bleeding, swelling, distress or impaired oxygenation may justify stopping earlier. After unsuccessful elective awake intubation, postponement is the default consideration; proceeding requires an explicit assessment of urgency, alternative airway strategies and rescue feasibility.
Apply it
Three attempts have failed during an elective case. Maintain oxygenation and reassess with a more experienced operator, who may make one further attempt if conditions remain suitable. If that fails, or trauma makes another attempt unsafe, stop instrumentation and consider postponement rather than automatically inducing anaesthesia.
Common pitfall: The 3 + 1 limit is a ceiling, not a requirement to use every attempt. Normal saturation does not cancel accumulating airway trauma or justify exceeding the limit.
Difficult Airway Society guidelines for awake tracheal intubation in adults
15.Why does inspired-oxygen monitoring add information beyond pulse oximetry?
Inspired-oxygen monitoring measures the oxygen concentration being delivered, whereas pulse oximetry estimates arterial oxygen saturation. These are different points in the oxygen-delivery pathway. A wrong gas mixture or delivery problem may be detected by an oxygen analyser before arterial desaturation develops. Conversely, a normal inspired concentration does not exclude obstruction, hypoventilation or impaired gas exchange. Interpreting both signals helps localise rather than merely detect a developing problem.
Apply it
After a gas-delivery adjustment, the inspired-oxygen alarm sounds while saturation remains normal. Check the delivered mixture and breathing system promptly; do not wait for saturation to fall before addressing the abnormal oxygen concentration reaching the patient.
Common pitfall: A normal saturation is a delayed downstream observation, not proof that the gas supply is correct. Oxygen stores can temporarily conceal a developing delivery problem.
16.What does abrupt loss of the capnographic waveform demand?
A suddenly absent carbon dioxide waveform requires immediate assessment of ventilation, airway continuity, circulation and the sampling system. Disconnection, displacement or obstruction may prevent exhaled gas reaching the sensor; severe loss of pulmonary perfusion can also reduce measured carbon dioxide. Interpret the waveform alongside chest movement, delivered ventilation and circulatory observations. A monitor fault is possible, but it should not be assumed before the patient and airway are assessed.
Apply it
Immediately after repositioning an intubated patient, the capnogram disappears. Check the patient, tube and circuit while ensuring ventilation, then assess sampling equipment and circulation according to the accompanying findings rather than attributing the change to an alarm fault.
Common pitfall: Silencing the alarm because saturation remains normal can delay recognition of interrupted ventilation. Oxygen stores may preserve saturation briefly despite a serious airway problem.
17.How should quantitative monitoring establish recovery after non-depolarising blockade?
PG18 section 6.7 requires quantitative assessment when considering extubation after non-depolarising neuromuscular blockade. The [2023 ASA guideline](https://doi.org/10.1097/ALN.0000000000004379) explicitly recommends confirming a train-of-four ratio of at least 0.9 at the adductor pollicis. Use a valid quantitative measurement, such as electromyography with ulnar nerve stimulation, rather than visual twitch assessment. This criterion concerns recovery from non-depolarising blockade and complements consciousness, ventilation and airway assessment; it is not a universal recovery test for every blockade pattern.
Apply it
After rocuronium, a patient follows commands but has a reliable adductor-pollicis electromyographic ratio of 0.72. Continue ventilation support, manage residual blockade according to its depth and prior reversal, and confirm a ratio of at least 0.9 before extubation. A reassuring facial-muscle response should not override the appropriate recovery-site measurement.
Common pitfall: Four twitches, a head lift or reversal administration do not establish recovery. Phase I depolarising block may depress twitch amplitude without train-of-four fade, so a preserved ratio alone does not exclude it.
18.How does the sedation continuum determine rescue requirements?
Sedation depth is defined by the patient's responsiveness and physiological function, not simply by the intended drug dose. Patients can progress unintentionally to deeper sedation, with airway obstruction or inadequate ventilation. The sedation team must be able to recognise and rescue that progression. The discriminating cue is a change in response or airway support requirements: an intended moderate-sedation plan does not remain moderate when the patient's observed state becomes deeper.
Apply it
During procedural sedation, a patient stops responding meaningfully and requires repeated airway support. Recognise the deeper-than-intended state, stop further sedative administration and institute airway and ventilation support with appropriate assistance rather than continuing under the original label.
Common pitfall: Calling the procedure moderate sedation does not determine its actual depth. A small administered dose can still produce profound effects in a susceptible patient.
19.When should pre-anaesthesia assessment occur before complex surgery?
Consultation should occur early enough for findings to influence preparation, investigations, shared decisions and the postoperative plan. The useful timing depends on the patient's condition and procedure rather than a universal interval. Earlier assessment is valuable when optimisation or multidisciplinary discussion may be needed. A prior clinic review does not remove the treating anaesthetist's responsibility to review relevant information and identify changes before providing anaesthesia.
Apply it
A patient with multiple comorbidities is booked for major elective surgery, and the first assessment reveals unresolved symptoms. Arrange timely evaluation while there is opportunity to change preparation, and ensure the treating anaesthetist reviews subsequent findings before proceeding.
Common pitfall: Treating clinic clearance as permanent approval ignores interval deterioration and procedural changes. Assessment adds value only when its findings can alter the care plan.
ANZCA PG07 Guideline on pre-anaesthesia consultation and patient preparation 2024
20.Which patients may benefit from preoperative cardiac stress testing?
The 2024 AHA/ACC approach supports selective stress testing for patients having noncardiac surgery who have poor or unknown functional capacity and elevated calculated perioperative risk, when results could change management. Routine testing is not recommended for low-risk procedures, low-risk patients or those with adequate functional capacity. The decision combines procedural risk, symptoms, functional status and an explicit consequence of a positive or negative result.
Apply it
An asymptomatic patient with good exercise tolerance is scheduled for a low-risk noncardiac procedure. Explain why routine stress testing would add little. Contrast this with a higher-risk patient whose result could change the operation or cardiovascular management.
Common pitfall: Poor exercise capacity alone does not mandate testing. Ordering a test without identifying how its result would change care creates delay without a clear clinical benefit.
2024 AHA/ACC Perioperative Cardiovascular Management Guideline: Key Points
21.When do active cardiovascular problems require a pause before elective noncardiac surgery?
Acute coronary syndrome, decompensated heart failure and unstable arrhythmias are active problems that require evaluation and management before elective noncardiac surgery. This differs from estimating risk in a stable patient. The decisive clues are new or worsening symptoms and instability, not merely a historical diagnostic label. Surgical urgency still matters: an emergency requires coordinated risk management, whereas elective timing permits investigation and treatment before proceeding.
Apply it
A patient scheduled for elective abdominal surgery reports new orthopnoea and worsening breathlessness with evidence of congestion. Treat this as a possible active cardiac problem requiring assessment and management, rather than relying on an older reassuring preoperative review.
Common pitfall: A normal historical test does not neutralise new clinical deterioration. Equally, stable chronic disease should not automatically be treated as an active condition requiring cancellation.
2024 AHA/ACC Perioperative Cardiovascular Management Guideline: Key Points
22.How should named multimodal components be selected when opioids cause drowsiness?
NSAIDs inhibit cyclo-oxygenase and reduce prostaglandin-mediated pain, providing opioid sparing, but renal vulnerability and NSAID-exacerbated respiratory disease can exclude them. Ketamine antagonises NMDA receptors and can reduce pain and opioid requirements. Gabapentinoids are unsuitable as routine postoperative additions: their limited benefit accompanies dizziness and increased opioid-induced ventilatory impairment risk.
Apply it
After laparotomy, an adult receiving paracetamol remains painful on movement and increasingly drowsy with opioid escalation. Acute kidney injury and previous NSAID-induced bronchospasm make an NSAID unsuitable. Assess ventilation immediately and withhold further opioid while drowsiness is evaluated. Once stable, an acute pain service can introduce monitored low-dose ketamine. Reassess coughing, mobilisation, opioid requirement, sedation, ventilation and adverse effects.
Common pitfall: Opioid sparing does not guarantee respiratory safety. A new adjunct cannot replace immediate airway or ventilation support when required.
ANZCA PS41(G) Position statement on acute pain management 2023
23.How should function influence acute pain assessment?
Pain assessment should connect the patient's report with activities needed for recovery, such as breathing deeply, coughing, moving or participating in rehabilitation. A resting score can conceal severe movement-related pain, while an acceptable score may coexist with medication toxicity. Reassess both benefit and harm after treatment. The useful endpoint is sufficient comfort to achieve agreed functional goals without unacceptable sedation, respiratory impairment or other adverse effects.
Apply it
A patient reports mild pain at rest but cannot cough or sit out of bed after abdominal surgery. Assess pain during these activities and revise analgesia around recovery goals, while checking whether treatment causes sedation or impairs ventilation.
Common pitfall: A low resting score is not evidence of adequate analgesia for recovery. Conversely, eliminating every pain sensation may impose more harm than functional benefit.
ANZCA PS41(G) Position statement on acute pain management 2023
24.Why does unexpected postoperative pain require diagnostic reassessment?
New, escalating or disproportionate pain may indicate a surgical complication, a new pathological process or failure of the analgesic technique. It should prompt examination and comparison with the expected recovery course. Analgesia can continue while the cause is investigated, but automatic dose escalation may obscure deterioration and add toxicity. The discriminating cue is a change in pattern, severity or associated findings rather than the pain number alone.
Apply it
Several hours after initially comfortable recovery, a patient develops rapidly increasing pain with a new abnormal examination finding. Seek urgent clinical and surgical review while supporting comfort, rather than treating the change solely as an insufficient opioid prescription.
Common pitfall: Assuming all postoperative pain is expected can delay recognition of complications. Apparent relief after an opioid does not establish that the underlying cause is benign.
ANZCA PS41(G) Position statement on acute pain management 2023
25.How does opioid stewardship shape discharge analgesia?
Opioid stewardship aligns prescribing with expected pain duration, current requirements, patient risk and a plan for review or cessation. Patients need understandable instructions about use, adverse effects and reduction as recovery progresses. Hospital prescribing should not become an indefinite default merely because an opioid was useful immediately after surgery. The key decision is what treatment remains necessary for function at discharge and who will review ongoing use.
Apply it
A patient used little opioid during the final postoperative day and is functioning well with other analgesia. Base discharge treatment on that trajectory, explain when and how to reduce use and communicate responsibility for review if pain persists.
Common pitfall: Copying the highest inpatient requirement into discharge prescribing ignores recovery and changing risk. A prescription without a cessation or review plan can outlast its clinical indication.
ANZCA PS41(G) Position statement on acute pain management 2023
26.Why document neurological findings before major regional anaesthesia?
A baseline neurological assessment records pre-existing weakness, sensory change and relevant symptoms before a regional technique alters examination findings. It supports informed discussion and later comparison if a new deficit is reported. The assessment should be proportionate to the procedure and existing disease. New postoperative findings may have anaesthetic, surgical, positioning or unrelated causes, so a documented baseline improves discrimination without establishing causation by itself.
Apply it
Before a regional technique for lower-limb surgery, a patient describes longstanding foot numbness. Characterise and document the distribution and motor findings, discuss their relevance and ensure postoperative assessors can distinguish the baseline problem from a new change.
Common pitfall: A vague note of pre-existing neuropathy may be insufficient for comparison. Baseline documentation helps interpretation but does not excuse dismissal of a genuinely new neurological deficit.
ANZCA PG03 Guideline for the management of major regional anaesthesia and analgesia 2026 — PILOT
27.How should progressive weakness during neuraxial analgesia change investigation?
Progressive or unexpected motor or sensory loss requires prompt examination for a compressive complication, including epidural haematoma or abscess. Back or radicular pain strengthens concern; fever or insertion-site infection suggests infection, but absence of these findings does not make a progressive deficit safe to observe. ANZCA PG03 2026 PILOT section 5.4.4 calls for prompt investigation and urgent management, preferring MRI when imaging is required. Obtain urgent relevant specialist assessment alongside investigation.
Apply it
Increasing bilateral weakness and new radicular pain develop during epidural analgesia. Review or suspend the infusion as appropriate, document the neurological examination and activate urgent spinal imaging and specialist management. Do not wait for block regression before investigating suspected compression; an abscess may also present days after the procedure.
Common pitfall: Stopping the infusion is not treatment for an epidural haematoma or abscess. Waiting to see whether weakness disappears can consume time needed for definitive management.
ANZCA PG03 Guideline for the management of major regional anaesthesia and analgesia 2026 — PILOT
28.How should anticoagulant exposure change selection of a regional technique?
Regional selection must account for the consequences of bleeding at the proposed site. Neuraxial bleeding can compress neural structures; a deep lumbar plexus block can cause retroperitoneal bleeding. ANZCA PG03 2026 PILOT requires assessment of coagulation abnormalities and antithrombotic drugs, noting that standard coagulation tests may not reveal clinically relevant direct anticoagulant effects. A normal INR alone therefore cannot establish suitability. Compare the regional benefit with bleeding risk, surgical urgency and a feasible non-neuraxial plan.
Apply it
A patient needing urgent abdominal surgery took a direct factor Xa inhibitor recently and has impaired renal function. Do not insert the proposed thoracic epidural merely because INR is normal. Establish drug, timing and renal function, consider an appropriate drug-specific assay, and use an anaesthetic and multimodal analgesic plan avoiding an unsafe neuraxial puncture if clinically significant anticoagulant activity remains.
Common pitfall: Changing from an epidural to a deep plexus block does not automatically remove bleeding risk. Drug-specific interruption and catheter-removal decisions require the relevant antithrombotic protocol rather than a universal interval.
ANZCA PG03 Guideline for the management of major regional anaesthesia and analgesia 2026 — PILOT · ANZCA PS41(G) Position statement on acute pain management 2023
29.Which findings suggest local anaesthetic systemic toxicity?
Local anaesthetic systemic toxicity can produce neurological and cardiovascular manifestations after systemic exposure. Seizures, altered consciousness, arrhythmias or cardiovascular collapse occurring during or after local anaesthetic administration should raise suspicion. A sedated or anaesthetised patient may not report early subjective symptoms, and presentations need not follow a neat sequence. Recognition depends on the exposure timeline and physiological pattern, prompting cessation of administration and immediate organised treatment.
Apply it
During a regional procedure, a patient develops a seizure followed by circulatory instability shortly after local anaesthetic injection. Stop administration, summon help and initiate the LAST response rather than assuming the event is an unrelated primary seizure disorder.
Common pitfall: Waiting for a full progression from minor symptoms to collapse can delay treatment. Absence of reported warning symptoms is particularly unreliable during sedation or general anaesthesia.
ASRA Local Anesthetic Systemic Toxicity Checklist, 2020 v1.1
30.How do ASRA and the ANZCA pilot differ on adrenaline during adult LAST resuscitation?
Both approaches require cessation of local anaesthetic, oxygenation and ventilation support, seizure treatment and access to lipid emulsion. The ASRA 2020 checklist recommends smaller adrenaline doses, starting below 1 microgram/kg. In contrast, ANZCA PG03 2026 PILOT section 9.2 explicitly addresses adult LAST cardiac arrest requiring CPR and supports standard ANZCOR dosing: 1 mg intravenously every two CPR cycles. The pilot does not endorse the lower dose in that adult arrest setting. This is a material protocol disagreement.
Apply it
For an adult with suspected LAST, distinguish cardiac arrest requiring CPR from hypotension with a perfusing circulation. The pilot's fixed 1 mg dose applies to adult arrest; it must not be imported into treatment of hypotension with a pulse. An explicitly ASRA-based response follows its smaller starting adrenaline recommendation. Identify the adopted protocol while coordinating lipid rescue and resuscitation. Children require an age-appropriate protocol; ANZCOR paediatric arrest adrenaline dosing is weight based.
Common pitfall: Neither a universal smaller-dose rule nor an unqualified fixed 1 mg rule accurately represents these sources. PG03 remains a 2026 pilot. Benzodiazepines are preferred for seizures in the ASRA checklist; propofol cannot replace lipid rescue.
ASRA Local Anesthetic Systemic Toxicity Checklist, 2020 v1.1 · ANZCA PG03 Guideline for the management of major regional anaesthesia and analgesia 2026 — PILOT · Guideline 11.2 – Protocols for Adult Advanced Life Support · Guideline 12.2 – Paediatric Advanced Life Support (PALS)
31.Why can perioperative anaphylaxis occur without visible skin signs?
Perioperative anaphylaxis may present predominantly as sudden hypotension, bronchospasm or cardiovascular collapse, while skin changes are absent or hidden by drapes. The temporal relationship to a possible trigger and the combined physiological pattern guide recognition. Immediate management includes stopping suspected triggers, calling for help, oxygenation, adrenaline and fluid resuscitation appropriate to the monitored perioperative setting. Investigation and documentation follow stabilisation; waiting for a rash can dangerously delay treatment.
Apply it
Soon after administration of a perioperative medication, an intubated patient develops profound hypotension and bronchospasm without a visible rash. Treat suspected anaphylaxis promptly while assessing other causes, rather than requiring skin findings before starting appropriate resuscitation.
Common pitfall: Absence of rash does not exclude anaphylaxis. Antihistamines or corticosteroids cannot substitute for adrenaline and circulatory support in a life-threatening reaction with shock.
ANZAAG–ANZCA Perioperative anaphylaxis management guideline 2022
32.Which early pattern should trigger treatment for malignant hyperthermia?
An unexplained rise in carbon dioxide production despite ventilation, tachycardia and muscle rigidity during exposure to triggering anaesthetics should raise concern for malignant hyperthermia. A high temperature may develop later, so treatment should not await marked hyperthermia. Immediate actions include stopping triggering agents, providing high-flow oxygen and administering dantrolene, with coordinated management of metabolic and physiological consequences. Necessary anaesthesia must continue using non-triggering techniques.
Apply it
During volatile anaesthesia, end-tidal carbon dioxide rises despite increased ventilation and generalised rigidity appears. Activate the malignant hyperthermia response, stop triggers and obtain dantrolene immediately rather than waiting for temperature to reach an extreme value.
Common pitfall: Treating the name as a requirement for an early fever delays recognition. Increased ventilation alone does not reverse the underlying hypermetabolic process or replace dantrolene treatment.
33.When should ongoing haemorrhage trigger a major haemorrhage response?
Life-threatening ongoing bleeding requires haemorrhage control and coordinated blood-component support. The [National Blood Authority critical bleeding guideline](https://www.blood.gov.au/patient-blood-management-guideline-adults-critical-bleeding) recommends a major haemorrhage protocol integrating source control, coagulopathy correction and physiological resuscitation. Activate support when the trajectory predicts major transfusion rather than waiting until a retrospective unit count is reached.
Apply it
A trauma patient remains hypotensive with continuing internal bleeding despite initial resuscitation. Activate the major haemorrhage protocol, expedite operative or interventional control and coordinate blood components. Repeated crystalloid or escalating vasopressors alone cannot replace the required haemorrhage-control strategy.
Common pitfall: Transfusion without source control can remain ineffective; source control without adequate resuscitation may also fail. These tasks require parallel ownership.
Guideline 11.10 Resuscitation in Special Circumstances · Guideline 11.2 – Protocols for Adult Advanced Life Support
34.How should medications be identified at preparation and administration?
Medication safety requires positive identification of the drug, concentration, intended dose and route at relevant steps of preparation and administration. Labels should preserve that identity after transfer from the original container. Reading the label is essential because container shape, storage position and colour are imperfect cues. The final check must occur close enough to administration to confirm that the selected medication still matches the intended treatment.
Apply it
Two syringes have similar appearance but different drugs and concentrations. Read and verify the selected syringe against the intended medication and route immediately before administration, rather than relying on its position in the tray or familiar label colour.
Common pitfall: Colour coding assists recognition but cannot establish drug identity or concentration. A correctly labelled syringe can still be selected for the wrong intended treatment.
ANZCA PG51(A) Guideline for the safe management and use of medications in anaesthesia 2021
35.Why is haemoglobin alone insufficient to guide major transfusion?
Red cells address oxygen-carrying capacity but do not replace all haemostatic components. The [National Blood Authority guideline](https://www.blood.gov.au/patient-blood-management-guideline-adults-critical-bleeding) recommends early repeated measurement of temperature, acid–base status, ionised calcium, haemoglobin, platelets, PT/INR, APTT and fibrinogen. Continued resuscitation must address the abnormalities identified, not just the red-cell count.
Apply it
During major transfusion, ongoing bleeding accompanies fibrinogen 1.1 g/L and ionised calcium 0.8 mmol/L. Arrange fibrinogen replacement and calcium correction within the haemorrhage protocol while continuing source control and blood-component support.
Common pitfall: A satisfactory haemoglobin does not establish adequate coagulation. Reassessment must continue as bleeding and transfusion change physiology.
36.How should monitoring continue during transfer and recovery?
Moving between locations does not end anaesthetic risk. Monitoring and skilled observation should match the patient's condition, ongoing treatments and potential for deterioration during transport and recovery. Recent instability, residual drug effects or an artificial airway may require continued close assessment. Plan equipment, personnel and destination readiness before departure, and transfer responsibility explicitly so that a change of location does not create a gap in surveillance.
Apply it
A patient remains intubated after a complicated procedure and requires transfer to intensive care. Confirm suitable transport monitoring, ventilation support, trained accompaniment and receiving-team readiness before leaving theatre, with an explicit handover of current problems and treatment.
Common pitfall: A short transport distance does not make observation unnecessary. Disconnecting established monitoring before replacement equipment is functioning can conceal deterioration at a vulnerable transition.
Specialised study unitsnot stated
37.Why can adequate arterial pressure during cardiopulmonary bypass coexist with inadequate oxygen delivery?
During bypass, systemic oxygen delivery depends on pump flow and arterial oxygen content, including haemoglobin and saturation. Arterial pressure also depends on vascular resistance; raising resistance can improve the displayed pressure without correcting low flow or low oxygen content. The [EACTS/EACTAIC/EBCP bypass guideline](https://doi.org/10.1093/ejcts/ezae354) supports assessing flow adequacy using oxygenation and metabolic measures, including venous saturation and lactate, rather than pressure alone.
Apply it
On bypass, MAP appears acceptable after vasoconstrictor treatment, but venous oxygen saturation falls and lactate rises. With the perfusionist, reassess pump flow, haemoglobin, oxygenation and oxygen demand instead of assuming a higher MAP has corrected delivery. This develops Appendix Five outcome SS_CS 1.17 on care during cardiopulmonary bypass.
Common pitfall: Pressure is not flow, and arterial saturation is not oxygen content. Increasing one reassuring number can leave another determinant of oxygen delivery inadequate.
ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Curriculum v1.14, December 2025
38.What does organised electrical activity without effective circulation require during a cardiac intervention?
An organised ECG without detectable cardiac output is pulseless electrical activity. In this arrest, start CPR immediately and follow the non-shockable ANZCOR pathway while treating reversible causes. Give adrenaline as soon as feasible under that pathway and repeat every second ALS loop. Defibrillation is not indicated for PEA itself. Procedural causes such as tamponade or major haemorrhage require concurrent assessment and specific treatment; ultrasound must not cause prolonged interruption of compressions.
Apply it
During a catheter intervention, an organised rhythm persists but the arterial waveform collapses and no effective pulse is present. Announce PEA, start CPR and the non-shockable pathway, and coordinate assessment for reversible procedural causes. This develops Appendix Five outcome SS_CS 1.27 on major interventional cardiology complications.
Common pitfall: Electrical activity does not establish mechanical circulation. This catheter-laboratory case should not be confused with the specialised CALS-ANZ pathway for arrest soon after cardiac surgery.
Guideline 11.2 – Protocols for Adult Advanced Life Support · Guideline 11.10 Resuscitation in Special Circumstances · ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Curriculum v1.14, December 2025
39.How should airway rescue be planned for endoscopic sedation?
Endoscopic procedures may place instruments and staff around the airway while sedation reduces responsiveness and airway tone. Rescue planning must address how the procedure will stop, how instruments will be removed and how ventilation will be supported if sedation deepens. The relevant decision is whether the planned setting and team can manage the actual physiological risks. An intended short procedure still requires preparation for obstruction or inadequate ventilation.
Apply it
During upper gastrointestinal endoscopy, a sedated patient becomes unresponsive with ineffective breathing. Stop further sedative delivery, coordinate withdrawal of the endoscope as needed and restore airway patency and ventilation with assistance rather than prioritising completion of the examination.
Common pitfall: Assuming the endoscopist's proximity guarantees airway rescue overlooks competing tasks and restricted access. Rescue responsibilities and the method of stopping the procedure should be agreed beforehand.
40.Why can additional systemic opioid be hazardous after neuraxial morphine for abdominal surgery?
Neuraxial morphine has prolonged effects; subsequent systemic opioid can add to ventilatory impairment. Assess the existing neuraxial prescription, sedation and ventilation before treating breakthrough pain. This applies pharmacological judgement to general surgical postoperative care.
Apply it
After laparotomy with intrathecal morphine, a patient becomes drowsy after systemic opioid rescue. Withhold further opioid, assess and support ventilation, and obtain urgent anaesthetic review. Reassess the pain cause and total opioid exposure before choosing further treatment.
Common pitfall: Different administration routes do not prevent additive toxicity. A low pain score does not establish respiratory safety.
ANZCA PG03 Guideline for the management of major regional anaesthesia and analgesia 2026 — PILOT · ANZCA PS41(G) Position statement on acute pain management 2023
41.Which features make head and neck airway planning especially consequential?
Head and neck pathology can alter airway access, anatomy and the consequences of losing spontaneous ventilation. Assessment should determine whether the planned route is usable and whether bleeding, narrowing or restricted movement could compromise alternative techniques. Awake intubation may preserve safety margins when induction would remove them. The airway plan should be agreed with the procedural team, including how unsuccessful attempts and an urgent need for rescue will be managed.
Apply it
A patient with a head and neck lesion has progressive breathing symptoms and restricted oral access. Review the available airway information with the surgeon, compare routes and rescue options, and justify whether securing the airway awake offers a safer sequence.
Common pitfall: A previously successful intubation does not establish current safety when pathology has progressed. A technically accessible glottis also does not guarantee uncomplicated ventilation after induction.
Difficult Airway Society guidelines for awake tracheal intubation in adults
42.Why does a short electroconvulsive therapy procedure still require full recovery assessment?
The brevity of electroconvulsive therapy does not demonstrate that anaesthetic or neuromuscular drug effects have resolved. Establish adequate ventilation and airway safety, and assess neuromuscular recovery according to the agent and blockade pattern. After non-depolarising blockade, quantitative recovery assessment is required; a train-of-four ratio alone cannot exclude persistent phase I depolarising block. Monitoring follows the patient's condition rather than stimulus duration. Repeated sessions also require review of interval clinical changes.
Apply it
After a brief ECT session, a patient remains weak with inadequate spontaneous ventilation. Continue airway and ventilation support and investigate residual drug effects. Identify which relaxant was used and interpret monitoring accordingly, rather than transferring because the treatment itself is finished.
Common pitfall: A short procedure does not guarantee rapid physiological recovery. Previous uncomplicated sessions do not replace assessment of current ventilation, airway protection and neuromuscular function.
ANZCA PG18 Guideline on monitoring during anaesthesia 2025 · ANZCA PG07 Guideline on pre-anaesthesia consultation and patient preparation 2024
43.Why is ARDS tidal volume based on predicted rather than actual body weight?
Predicted body weight estimates lung size from height and sex; adipose weight does not proportionately enlarge the lungs. ARDS ventilation therefore uses tidal volumes within a low-volume range based on predicted body weight, commonly beginning around 6 mL/kg, rather than actual weight. The guideline range is 4–8 mL/kg predicted body weight, with adjustment for respiratory mechanics and physiology. This limits excessive lung stretch while other ventilation variables are managed.
Apply it
An adult with ARDS weighs 120 kg but has a supplied predicted body weight of 60 kg. Calculate an initial tidal volume of approximately 360 mL at 6 mL/kg predicted body weight, then reassess pressures and gas exchange.
Common pitfall: Using actual weight in obesity can deliver an excessive tidal volume. The initial calculation is a starting point, not a reason to ignore subsequent respiratory mechanics.
ATS–ESICM–SCCM Mechanical Ventilation in Adult Patients with ARDS, 2017
44.How do plateau pressure and prone positioning complement low-volume ARDS ventilation?
Low tidal volume alone does not establish that lung stress is acceptable. ARDS guidance also recommends limiting plateau pressure to below 30 cm H2O and prone positioning for more than 12 hours daily in severe ARDS. Plateau pressure reflects the respiratory system under no-flow conditions and differs from peak pressure. The ATS 2024 review confirms retention of the foundational low-volume and prone-positioning recommendations alongside newer treatment considerations.
Apply it
A patient with severe ARDS receives low predicted-body-weight tidal volumes but remains severely hypoxaemic. Review plateau pressure and the overall ventilation strategy, and assess suitability for prolonged prone positioning rather than escalating tidal volume simply to improve the oxygen number.
Common pitfall: Peak pressure and plateau pressure are not interchangeable. A low set tidal volume also does not exclude excessive plateau pressure or remove the role of prone positioning.
ATS–ESICM–SCCM Mechanical Ventilation in Adult Patients with ARDS, 2017 · ATS 2024 Clinical Year in Review
45.How is cerebral perfusion pressure calculated after severe traumatic brain injury?
Cerebral perfusion pressure is calculated as mean arterial pressure minus intracranial pressure when the relevant pressures are measured and interpreted consistently. A fall in arterial pressure or rise in intracranial pressure can therefore reduce the perfusion gradient. The Brain Trauma Foundation recommends a CPP target of 60–70 mmHg, with the appropriate point influenced by autoregulatory status. The calculation supports interpretation but does not independently measure cerebral blood flow.
Apply it
A patient with severe traumatic brain injury has a mean arterial pressure of 85 mmHg and intracranial pressure of 25 mmHg. Calculate CPP as 60 mmHg and consider both systemic pressure and intracranial pathology when assessing the next intervention.
Common pitfall: Reporting mean arterial pressure as CPP ignores intracranial pressure. A numerically acceptable CPP also does not prove normal cerebral blood flow or eliminate other secondary injury risks.
46.Why should cerebral perfusion pressure not be driven indiscriminately above target?
Higher calculated CPP is not automatically better. The Brain Trauma Foundation advises avoiding aggressive attempts to maintain CPP above 70 mmHg with fluids and pressors because of the risk of adult respiratory failure. Management balances cerebral perfusion against systemic harm and considers autoregulation and intracranial pressure. This distinguishes correcting inadequate perfusion from pursuing an unnecessarily high number despite a satisfactory clinical and monitored picture.
Apply it
A patient has CPP of 66 mmHg, but a proposed plan would use substantial additional fluid and vasopressors to reach 85 mmHg. Question the routine escalation and assess the cerebral and systemic indications rather than assuming the higher target is protective.
Common pitfall: A larger pressure gradient does not guarantee proportionately greater useful cerebral flow. Aggressive systemic treatment can create important pulmonary harm without a justified cerebral benefit.
47.Why is uterine displacement relevant during caesarean anaesthesia?
In later pregnancy, the uterus can compress major vessels when the patient is supine, reducing venous return and compromising maternal circulation. Uterine displacement reduces this mechanical contribution to haemodynamic impairment. Obstetric guidance supports maintaining displacement until delivery during caesarean anaesthesia. It belongs within a broader haemodynamic plan: persistent hypotension still requires assessment and appropriate treatment rather than assuming positioning alone will correct every cause.
Apply it
A patient becomes hypotensive while supine for caesarean delivery. Ensure effective uterine displacement while assessing the anaesthetic, bleeding and other circulatory factors, and treat haemodynamic compromise according to the complete clinical picture rather than positioning in isolation.
Common pitfall: A visible table tilt does not guarantee effective displacement in every patient. Conversely, correcting position does not remove the need to recognise and treat other causes of hypotension.
48.How should the anaesthetic technique for caesarean delivery be selected?
Anaesthetic selection for caesarean delivery should be individualised to maternal condition, fetal considerations, urgency, patient preference and the feasibility of available techniques. Neuraxial anaesthesia is generally preferred for most caesarean deliveries, but it is not universally suitable. The discriminating decision is whether the technique can provide timely, adequate and safe conditions in the actual circumstances, including whether an existing neuraxial technique is functioning reliably.
Apply it
A stable patient with a functioning epidural requires caesarean delivery without immediate life-threatening urgency. Compare extending the established neuraxial technique with alternatives, incorporating adequacy, contraindications and the patient's preference rather than treating the surgical label as an automatic indication for general anaesthesia.
Common pitfall: A general preference for neuraxial anaesthesia is not an absolute rule. Urgency, contraindications and inadequate block must change the plan when they alter safety or feasibility.
49.How does extraocular muscle traction cause bradycardia, and what should change immediately?
The oculocardiac reflex links ophthalmic trigeminal afferents to vagal cardiac efferents. Traction on an extraocular muscle or pressure on the globe can cause abrupt bradycardia or other dysrhythmias. Ask the surgeon to stop the stimulus immediately while assessing circulation, oxygenation, ventilation and anaesthetic depth. Persistent clinically significant bradycardia may require an antimuscarinic. [AAO guidance on the oculocardiac reflex](https://eyewiki.aao.org/Oculocardiac_Reflex) describes this mechanism and management.
Apply it
During strabismus surgery, heart rate falls abruptly when muscle traction begins and improves when traction stops. Identify the stimulus-linked reflex and coordinate release before resuming surgery. This directly develops Appendix Five outcome SS_OP 1.3 on eye reflexes and their management.
Common pitfall: Treating the heart rate while allowing the provoking traction to continue leaves the mechanism active. A stimulus-linked pattern is informative, but persistent instability still requires assessment for other causes.
ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Curriculum v1.14, December 2025
50.Why must systemic pressure and intraocular pressure be considered together?
Ocular perfusion depends on the pressure gradient through the ocular circulation. Lower arterial pressure or higher intraocular pressure can reduce that gradient. The [AAO Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma Preferred Practice Pattern](https://www.aaojournal.org/article/S0161-6420%2820%2931024-1/fulltext) identifies the relationship between blood pressure and intraocular pressure. A calculated gradient does not itself measure ocular blood flow, and pressure at the eye must be interpreted with position and the clinical situation.
Apply it
A patient with glaucoma becomes hypotensive during eye surgery while intraocular pressure is elevated. Recognise that both changes threaten the perfusion gradient; correct systemic hypotension and coordinate ophthalmic assessment of the raised intraocular pressure. This develops Appendix Five outcome SS_OP 1.2 on ocular perfusion and intraocular pressure.
Common pitfall: An acceptable oxygen saturation does not establish ocular perfusion. Lowering intraocular pressure and maintaining appropriate systemic circulation address different determinants of the same gradient.
ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Curriculum v1.14, December 2025
51.When should breakthrough pain after limb surgery trigger assessment for compartment syndrome?
Increasing pressure within a closed muscle compartment can compromise local tissue perfusion. Unexpected or rapidly increasing limb pain after fracture surgery, including breakthrough pain despite regional analgesia, requires urgent examination and surgical assessment. ANZCA PG03 2026 PILOT specifically identifies sudden pain escalation as a possible signal of compartment syndrome. Appendix Five outcomes SS_OR 1.4 and SS_OR 1.14 include its management.
Apply it
After tibial fracture fixation, pain rises sharply after an initially effective peripheral block and the operated leg becomes increasingly swollen. Seek immediate orthopaedic assessment for a limb complication while providing monitored analgesia. Assess the compartment and neurovascular findings rather than assuming catheter failure and giving another local anaesthetic bolus.
Common pitfall: Neither an analgesic technique nor temporary relief after rescue medication establishes that tissue perfusion is safe. An unexplained change needs assessment of the limb, not solely adjustment of analgesia.
ANZCA PG03 Guideline for the management of major regional anaesthesia and analgesia 2026 — PILOT · ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Curriculum v1.14, December 2025
52.How should crush injury change the interpretation of perioperative arrhythmia?
Crush injury can produce hyperkalaemia that causes conduction disturbance and arrest. Peaked T waves, loss of P waves and QRS widening after a substantial crush injury should prompt urgent potassium measurement and treatment. Calcium protects the myocardium without lowering potassium; insulin with glucose shifts potassium into cells, while removal may require dialysis. ANZCOR recommends urgent treatment when potassium exceeds 6.5 mmol/L in this setting. This develops Appendix Five outcome SS_OR 1.4.
Apply it
An adult with a crushed lower limb develops a widening QRS and potassium of 7.2 mmol/L. Start monitored hyperkalaemia treatment, including myocardial protection and intracellular potassium shift, while treating associated trauma. Repeat ECG, potassium and glucose measurements and arrange definitive potassium removal if the response is inadequate.
Common pitfall: Improved ECG appearance after calcium does not mean hyperkalaemia has resolved. Insulin treatment also requires glucose surveillance because hypoglycaemia can follow.
Guideline 11.10.1 Management of Cardiac Arrest due to Trauma · Guideline 11.10 Resuscitation in Special Circumstances · ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Curriculum v1.14, December 2025
53.Why should pyloromyotomy wait when an infant has dehydration and metabolic alkalosis?
Pyloric obstruction causes progressive non-bilious vomiting; prolonged gastric losses can produce hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis and dehydration. Initial priorities are correction of volume, electrolyte and acid–base abnormalities. The [Royal Children's Hospital pyloric stenosis guideline](https://www.rch.org.au/clinicalguide/guideline_index/Pyloric_Stenosis/) emphasises normalising bicarbonate before surgery because persistent alkalosis increases postoperative hypoventilation or apnoea risk. Surgical correction can wait while these abnormalities are treated.
Apply it
A five-week-old infant has ultrasound-confirmed pyloric stenosis, dehydration, chloride 82 mmol/L and bicarbonate 39 mmol/L. Establish IV treatment and repeat biochemical assessment rather than proceeding immediately because the diagnosis is confirmed. This develops Appendix Five outcome SS_PA 1.76 on anaesthesia for pyloromyotomy.
Common pitfall: A confirmed surgical diagnosis does not establish physiological readiness for anaesthesia. Early pyloric stenosis can lack the classic biochemical pattern, so normal initial electrolytes do not exclude it.
ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Curriculum v1.14, December 2025 · ANZCA PG29(A) Guideline for the provision of anaesthesia care to children 2020
54.How should maintenance fluid be selected for an unwell child who cannot drink?
Separate resuscitation, maintenance, deficits and ongoing losses. For children older than one month, the [Royal Children's Hospital IV fluid guideline](https://www.rch.org.au/clinicalguide/guideline_index/Intravenous_fluids/) generally favours isotonic maintenance fluid with glucose, such as sodium chloride 0.9% with glucose 5%. Illness-related antidiuretic hormone secretion can reduce water requirements; hypotonic fluid may cause hyponatraemia. Adjust the rate to clinical status and monitor weight, balance, electrolytes and glucose.
Apply it
A haemodynamically stable postoperative child cannot drink and has no measured deficit. Prescribe maintenance separately from any future loss replacement; do not give repeated resuscitation boluses for maintenance. Reassess whether illness warrants less than full maintenance. This develops Appendix Five outcome SS_PA 1.68 on paediatric IV fluid requirements and selection.
Common pitfall: A calculated maintenance rate is a starting point rather than an instruction to give full maintenance to every sick child. Neonates require a separate age-specific fluid approach.
ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Curriculum v1.14, December 2025 · ANZCA PG29(A) Guideline for the provision of anaesthesia care to children 2020
55.How should repeated burns procedures change pain planning?
Repeated painful burns procedures require an evolving plan that distinguishes ongoing pain from procedure-related pain and reassesses the patient's response over time. Previous treatment requirements, adverse effects and patient concerns inform the next episode, but should not be copied without review. Multimodal care and coordinated communication support comfort and function across procedures. The decision concerns the complete recovery trajectory, including how treatment will change as procedures and pain burden diminish.
Apply it
A patient undergoing repeated burns dressing procedures reports severe anticipatory distress and prolonged drowsiness after the previous session. Review both experiences with the patient and team, then adjust the next analgesic plan rather than repeating the same regimen automatically.
Common pitfall: Repeated exposure does not make a fixed regimen appropriate indefinitely. Treating procedural pain alone can leave background pain, adverse effects and recovery goals insufficiently addressed.
ANZCA PS41(G) Position statement on acute pain management 2023
56.How should occult blood loss influence management during prolonged flap reconstruction?
Prolonged flap surgery combines restricted patient access with the possibility of substantial cumulative blood loss. Appendix Five outcome SS_PB 1.3 explicitly includes these hazards. Blood loss reduces effective circulating volume and, as haemoglobin falls, oxygen-carrying capacity. A pressure restored by vasoconstriction does not establish that either problem has been corrected. Assess cumulative loss and perfusion trends throughout the operation rather than waiting for a single dramatic bleeding event.
Apply it
During an eight-hour reconstruction, vasopressor requirements increase while serial haemoglobin falls and lactate rises. Ask the surgical team to reassess blood loss across the operative fields, evaluate circulation and arrange appropriate blood support and haemorrhage control. If bleeding becomes critical, activate the major haemorrhage pathway rather than escalating vasopressor alone.
Common pitfall: Small losses sustained over many hours can become substantial. Neither an acceptable arterial pressure nor normal oxygen saturation excludes inadequate oxygen delivery.
ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Curriculum v1.14, December 2025 · Guideline 11.10.1 Management of Cardiac Arrest due to Trauma
57.When should lung-isolation device position be reassessed bronchoscopically?
Lung-isolation device position can change with patient repositioning or procedural manipulation. Unexpected hypoxaemia, ventilation difficulty or inadequate isolation should prompt consideration of malposition and bronchoscopic assessment. Direct assessment can identify a correctable mechanical cause that increasing inspired oxygen alone cannot resolve. Position confirmation belongs to an ongoing strategy rather than a single event immediately after placement, especially when the patient's position or ventilation pattern subsequently changes.
Apply it
After lateral positioning for thoracic surgery, a patient develops poor ventilation and hypoxaemia during one-lung ventilation. Support oxygenation and assess the lung-isolation device bronchoscopically as part of the immediate evaluation rather than assuming the original position remains correct.
Common pitfall: A satisfactory initial check does not guarantee persistent position. Treating all one-lung hypoxaemia as unavoidable physiology can delay correction of a displaced or obstructing device.
Italian intersociety PACTS consensus, part 2: intraoperative and postoperative thoracic care
58.Why must bronchoscopy equipment be immediately available for thoracic anaesthesia?
One-lung ventilation depends on correct placement and function of specialised airway devices. Immediate access to an appropriate bronchoscope allows confirmation, troubleshooting and correction when isolation or ventilation fails. Thoracic service guidance treats equipment availability and trained use as essential preparation. Having equipment somewhere in the hospital is not equivalent to being able to deploy it promptly during deteriorating oxygenation or a time-sensitive airway problem.
Apply it
A thoracic list is ready to start, but the only suitable bronchoscope is unavailable in another department. Resolve immediate equipment access and skilled support before relying on a lung-isolation technique that may require urgent bronchoscopic confirmation or correction.
Common pitfall: A planned uncomplicated insertion does not remove the need for rescue equipment. Availability must include a functioning, suitable device and staff able to use it promptly.
RCoA Guidelines on the Provision of Anaesthesia Services for Thoracic Procedures 2026
59.How does aortic cross-clamping change ventricular load and distal perfusion?
Aortic cross-clamping increases resistance to proximal ejection and can abruptly increase left ventricular afterload, while reducing perfusion below the clamp. The response depends on clamp level, collateral circulation, ventricular function and volume distribution. [Primary haemodynamic research](https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/7258523/) documents increased systemic resistance and systolic pressure during abdominal aortic clamping. A higher proximal arterial pressure does not establish adequate flow to distal organs.
Apply it
During open aortic repair, proximal pressure rises after clamping while a patient with impaired ventricular function develops evidence of poor output. Assess ventricular performance and loading conditions rather than treating the pressure rise as proof of improved circulation. This develops Appendix Five outcome SS_VS 1.9 on clamping physiology and anaesthetic implications.
Common pitfall: Clamp level matters: perfusion of kidneys, viscera and spinal cord cannot be inferred from a single proximal pressure. Reflexively giving fluid for every pressure change can worsen ventricular loading.
ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Curriculum v1.14, December 2025
60.Why can aortic unclamping cause abrupt hypotension?
Unclamping restores access to a previously excluded vascular bed and reduces vascular resistance; redistribution of circulating volume and reperfusion can impair pressure and effective filling. Anticipate the transition with the surgeon, reassess volume and ventricular function, adjust vasoactive treatment and observe the response. [Primary research on clamping and release](https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/19262219/) describes the abrupt change from increased resistance during clamping to hypotension risk after release.
Apply it
Pressure falls immediately after aortic unclamping. Coordinate controlled release and circulatory support while assessing filling, ventricular function and surgical bleeding. Vasodilatation may require vasoactive support; actual blood loss requires replacement and control. This develops Appendix Five outcome SS_VS 1.9 rather than treating all post-release hypotension as the same mechanism.
Common pitfall: The timing suggests an unclamping effect but does not exclude haemorrhage or myocardial dysfunction. Indiscriminate volume loading can be harmful when poor ventricular function is the limiting problem.
ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Curriculum v1.14, December 2025
What to focus on during revision
The following are CertMedbry study suggestions. Use the official outline to check the full scope of your examination.
- Use Appendix Five to track the full FEx-labelled scope across all seven professional roles, seven clinical fundamentals and twelve specialised units.
- Practise explaining the dominant hazard, supporting findings, chosen intervention and trigger for changing course in each clinical scenario.
- Interpret capnography, oxygen concentration, circulation and quantitative neuromuscular recovery as complementary signals.
- Rehearse awake airway attempt limits and the distinct protocols for anaphylaxis, malignant hyperthermia, LAST and traumatic arrest, preserving age restrictions.
- Work through major haemorrhage, blood-component support and regional-technique selection using the findings that discriminate between management choices.
- Select named analgesic components using mechanisms and exclusions, assess functional recovery and investigate suspected neural or limb complications urgently.
- Develop specialist mechanisms including bypass oxygen delivery, eye reflexes and perfusion, crush-related hyperkalaemia, occult reconstructive blood loss, paediatric fluid decisions and aortic clamping.
- Prepare separately for MCQ discrimination, structured SAQ writing, medical assessment and spoken anaesthesia decision making.
A practical preparation plan
1. Map the complete Final examination scope
Build a study matrix from Appendix Five, marking each FEx outcome against a case, a clinical source and an opportunity for written or spoken practice. Use this guide to begin selected topics, then fill the remaining official outcomes.
2. Make each case decision explicit
For each case, state the immediate concern, the findings that support it, the proposed management and what would change your plan. Practise explaining why the closest competing approach is less suitable.
3. Rehearse calculations with interpretation
Calculate CPP, predicted-body-weight tidal volumes, absolute risk reduction and NNT. Explain the units, assumptions and clinical limits rather than stopping after obtaining the number.
4. Practise the actual assessment modes
Add timed SAQ work and supervised medical and anaesthesia viva practice to MCQ study. Use the verified component durations to structure sessions, and seek feedback on prioritisation, integration and clear decisions.
5. Review errors by mechanism
After each drill, identify whether the error concerned recognition, physiology, interpretation, treatment selection or professional judgement. Return to the relevant clinical source and create a fresh case that tests the same distinction.
6. Maintain breadth and current applicability
Rotate through every specialised unit, including less frequently encountered practice. Before the sitting, review the current ANZCA examination instructions and document versions, keeping pathway-specific rules separate from clinical study priorities.
Use your sample score as a starting point
The free set contains 20 original practice questions. It is a small learning sample, not an official examination or a validated pass prediction. Review each explanation and its source before moving to another topic.
Start the free sampleOfficial sources and updates
- ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program
- ANZCA Anaesthesia exams
- ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Handbook v2.12, December 2025
- ANZCA Anaesthesia Training Program Curriculum v1.14, December 2025
- ANZCA Professional documents
- Difficult Airway Society guidelines for awake tracheal intubation in adults
- ANZCA PG18 Guideline on monitoring during anaesthesia 2025
- ANZCA PG09(G) Guideline on procedural sedation 2023
- ANZCA PG07 Guideline on pre-anaesthesia consultation and patient preparation 2024
- 2024 AHA/ACC Perioperative Cardiovascular Management Guideline: Key Points
- ASRA Local Anesthetic Systemic Toxicity Checklist, 2020 v1.1
- ANZCA PG03 Guideline for the management of major regional anaesthesia and analgesia 2026 — PILOT
- ANZAAG–ANZCA Perioperative anaphylaxis management guideline 2022
- MHAUS Managing a Crisis
- ANZCA PS41(G) Position statement on acute pain management 2023
- ANZCA PG51(A) Guideline for the safe management and use of medications in anaesthesia 2021
- ANZCA PS26(A) Position statement on informed consent for anaesthesia or sedation 2021
- ASA–SOAP Practice Guidelines for Obstetric Anesthesia, 2016
- Brain Trauma Foundation Guidelines for the Management of Severe Traumatic Brain Injury, Fourth Edition
- ATS–ESICM–SCCM Mechanical Ventilation in Adult Patients with ARDS, 2017
- ATS 2024 Clinical Year in Review
- ANZCA PG29(A) Guideline for the provision of anaesthesia care to children 2020
- RCoA Guidelines on the Provision of Anaesthesia Services for Thoracic Procedures 2026
- Italian intersociety PACTS consensus, part 2: intraoperative and postoperative thoracic care
- New Zealand Code of Health and Disability Services Consumers' Rights
- Guideline 11.2 – Protocols for Adult Advanced Life Support
- Guideline 11.10 Resuscitation in Special Circumstances
- Chapter 15: Interpreting results and drawing conclusions | Cochrane
- Guideline 11.10.1 Management of Cardiac Arrest due to Trauma
- Guideline 12.2 – Paediatric Advanced Life Support (PALS)
- ezae354.pdf
- Oculocardiac Reflex - EyeWiki
- Clinical Practice Guidelines : Pyloric stenosis
- Clinical Practice Guidelines : Intravenous fluids
Confirm current eligibility, fees, scheduling and policies directly with the examination provider. CertMedbry is independent and is not endorsed by these organisations. How we handle content and corrections.