Nursing · Independent exam preparation

NMC Test of Competence 2021 Part 2 OSCE: Adult Nursing Preparation Guide Study Guide

Practise adult nursing assessment, safe clinical skills, professional judgement and research appraisal for the NMC Test of Competence Part 2 OSCE.

By CertMedbry · Updated 28 October 2026

60 concepts explainedWorked examples & common pitfallsOfficial blueprint references

Recognise deterioration, build measurable care plans, administer medicines safely and explain evidence-informed decisions. This selective guide develops 60 concepts for the adult nursing RN1 pathway at the level expected of a newly registered nurse in the United Kingdom. The official adult nursing blueprint, test specification, Code and current preparation materials define the full examination scope.

Try 20 free practice questions

What is the exam format?

Check the question types, timing and outline before planning your revision.

Which examination and professional level does this guide address?

This guide addresses Test of Competence 2021, Part 2: Objective Structured Clinical Examination, specifically adult nursing RN1. The assessment is set at UK entry-to-register nursing competence. The NMC owns the examination and regulates registration; approved centres deliver it. The OSCE does not assess nurse practitioner or other advanced-practice certification.

Test of Competence: Nursing (all fields) candidate information booklet

How do other nursing fields, midwifery and nursing associate assessments differ?

Adult, children's, learning disabilities and mental health nursing each have a field-specific Test of Competence. This guide chooses adult nursing rather than combining their station banks. Midwifery has its own booklet, blueprint and care scenarios within the Test of Competence. Nursing associate assessment is a separate pathway and is outside this guide.

Test of Competence 2021: Preparation materials · Test of Competence 2021: Midwifery blueprint

How many stations are assessed, and are there scored or pretest questions?

There are 10 stations: four linked Assessment, Planning, Implementation and Evaluation stations; four clinical skills stations arranged in two pairs; one professional values and behaviours station; and one evidence-based practice station. Each station has assessment criteria. A scored/pretest MCQ split is not specified for this practical examination. This guide contains 20 independent four-option learning questions.

NMC OSCE: Test of Competence 2021 · Test of Competence: Nursing (all fields) candidate information booklet

How long is the OSCE?

The October 2026 nursing candidate booklet describes total testing time as about three hours. An individual station or linked pair lasts between 8 and 21 minutes. Skills pairings last up to 21 minutes, with four minutes between pairings. These figures describe different parts of the timetable; use the current nursing station timings and centre instructions for your appointment.

Test of Competence: Nursing (all fields) candidate information booklet · Test of Competence 2021: Preparation materials

How is the examination delivered, and what response styles are used?

The OSCE is an in-person practical assessment using actors, manikins, equipment and clinical documentation. Assessors observe practical performance, and communication is assessed throughout. Professional values and evidence-based practice are written stations. It is not described as a computer-adaptive examination. The separate Part 1 CBT and Part 2 OSCE can be taken in either order, but both must be passed when required for the application.

Test of Competence: Nursing (all fields) candidate information booklet · NMC OSCE: Test of Competence 2021

Which blueprint and effective dates apply?

Test of Competence 2021 was introduced in August 2021. The nursing specification is V1.1, and the adult nursing blueprint is V1.0, mapping the 2018 standards to CBT, OSCE or both. The nursing candidate booklet is V2.4, updated October 2026. Adult updates announced in January 2026 apply to first attempts from 23 February 2026. September 2026 replenishments apply to first attempts from 26 October 2026 and are therefore effective on 28 October 2026. Use the updated marking criteria linked by the NMC for the applicable sitting; the January criteria alone do not describe every subsequent addition.

Test of Competence 2021: Preparation materials · Test of Competence 2021: Nursing Test Specification for Candidates · Test of Competence 2021: Adult nursing blueprint · Test of Competence: Nursing (all fields) candidate information booklet

Are the four study domains official score weights?

The four domains organise the published station structure. APIE and clinical skills each account for four of 10 stations; professional values and evidence-based practice each account for one. These are station proportions, not published percentages of marks. No OSCE nursing-platform percentage weights are established here. Accordingly, the guide allocates concepts 24/24/6/6 and questions and flashcards 8/8/2/2. CBT platform question counts must not be transferred to the OSCE.

Test of Competence 2021: Nursing Test Specification for Candidates · Test of Competence 2021: Adult nursing blueprint

What defines the full scope beyond these 60 concepts?

The adult nursing blueprint, specification, Code and current preparation materials define the full scope. The blueprint covers seven proficiency platforms: accountability; health promotion and prevention; assessment and planning; care provision and evaluation; leadership and teamwork; safety and quality; and coordination. Its communication and procedure annexes also matter. This guide is selective and cannot serve as a complete station inventory or substitute for the current official outline.

Test of Competence 2021: Adult nursing blueprint · Test of Competence 2021: Preparation materials

How is a pass determined?

Each station uses a criterion-based assessment sheet. Station pass scores combine professional judgement and statistical information, and candidates must pass every station. The booklet does not provide a single universal numerical pass percentage. An agreed unsafe-practice red flag denotes a station fail. Learning-question scores in this guide cannot establish practical competence or predict the examination result.

Test of Competence: Nursing (all fields) candidate information booklet

Where is the OSCE delivered, and which jurisdictional sources inform this guide?

The NMC currently lists University of Northampton, Ulster University and Leeds Teaching Hospitals NHS Trust as approved providers. NMC professional standards apply across the UK. The infection prevention manual cited here is specifically for England; legislation and local implementation can differ across UK nations. For example, the nursing booklet notes that the Equality Act 2010 does not apply in Northern Ireland, where separate equality requirements operate.

NMC OSCE: Test of Competence 2021 · Test of Competence: Nursing (all fields) candidate information booklet · National infection prevention and control manual for England, V2.12

The OSCE is the practical second part of the NMC Test of Competence, rather than a separate qualification. This independent adult nursing guide includes original MCQ drills and flashcards; these support clinical judgement but do not reproduce practical stations, replace supervised rehearsal or predict a pass.

Outline used: Verified against official materials available on 2026-10-11, Asia/Hong_Kong: nursing and midwifery candidate information booklets V2.4, updated October 2026; Nursing Test Specification V1.1, describing the Test of Competence introduced in August 2021; Adult Nursing and Midwifery blueprints V1.0. The workbook label maps to Part 2 of the NMC Test of Competence, rather than a separate qualification. The assigned slug is preserved. This is a nursing-focused preview across shared competencies and selected nursing-field contexts. January and March 2026 replenishments are effective; September 2026 replenishments become examinable for first attempts from 2026-10-26 and are not treated as effective on the reference date.

60 key concepts: understand, apply and avoid the traps

Work through the questions by exam domain. Explain the answer in your own words, try the example, then check the common pitfall.

APIE care process40% of stations: 4/10; score weighting not stated

1.What makes an assessment holistic and clinically useful?

A holistic assessment connects physical findings with psychological concerns, function, social circumstances and the person's priorities. Its purpose is to identify care needs and risks that influence decisions, rather than accumulate unrelated facts. Begin with immediate safety, then establish the presenting problem, baseline abilities, relevant history and support needs. Distinguish what the person reports from what you observe, and check discrepancies before building a plan.

Apply it

An adult admitted with breathlessness also reports difficulty washing and fear of returning to an upstairs flat. Address breathing urgently, then include functional ability, anxiety and the home environment when identifying nursing needs and coordinating support.

Common pitfall: A complete set of observations does not make an assessment holistic. Ignoring function or the person's concerns can produce a technically detailed but impractical care plan.

Preparing for your OSCE: All nursing fields

2.How should identity be established before individual care?

Identity checks link the person to the correct prescription, investigation and documentation. Ask the person to state identifying details, then compare them with the identification band and relevant record. Use the identifiers required by the clinical procedure; a bed number or recognition of someone's face is insufficient. If details disagree, resolve the discrepancy before non-emergency treatment. The check should be active rather than a leading question inviting agreement.

Apply it

Before administering a medicine, a nurse finds that the date of birth stated by the patient differs from the chart. Pause administration, check the identification band and records, and establish which documentation belongs to the patient.

Common pitfall: Asking whether someone is a named patient can elicit automatic agreement. A familiar face or occupied bed does not reliably connect that person with the correct chart.

Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria

3.How can communication adjustments improve assessment accuracy?

Assessment is more reliable when the person can understand questions and communicate their own account. Establish preferred language, hearing or visual needs, communication aids and the pace that suits them. Use clear questions, allow processing time and check understanding through explanation in the person's own words. Arrange appropriate communication support when needed. Difficulty speaking English, hearing a question or processing information does not itself establish inability to make a decision.

Apply it

A patient repeatedly agrees but gives inconsistent answers about symptoms. Check hearing aids and preferred language, reduce competing noise, and arrange suitable interpretation if necessary before treating agreement as evidence that the questions were understood.

Common pitfall: Speaking louder or relying on a relative's summary may conceal the patient's own concerns. Communication difficulty should trigger adjustment rather than assumptions about understanding or decision-making ability.

The Code: Professional standards of practice and behaviour · Test of Competence: Nursing (all fields) candidate information booklet

4.Which symptom details change the assessment decision?

A useful symptom history establishes onset, location, character, severity, duration, associated features and factors that worsen or relieve the problem. Compare the current episode with the person's usual state and previous episodes. The discriminating information is often a change: sudden onset, increasing severity or a new associated symptom. Ask focused follow-up questions while observing the person, and do not let prolonged history-taking delay treatment of an immediate threat.

Apply it

An adult describes discomfort as their usual indigestion but also reports sudden sweating and new breathlessness. Explore the changed features and seek urgent assessment rather than accepting the familiar label as an adequate explanation.

Common pitfall: A patient's diagnostic label can anchor the assessment prematurely. Clarify the actual symptoms and their change from baseline before deciding that an episode is routine.

Preparing for your OSCE: All nursing fields · Resuscitation Council UK: The ABCDE Approach

5.Why does ABCDE assessment treat threats as they are found?

The ABCDE approach orders assessment by threats to oxygen delivery and survival: airway, breathing, circulation, disability and exposure. Identify and treat life-threatening problems before moving onward, call for help early and reassess the effect of each intervention. It is a repeating process rather than a one-off form. A detailed history or complete observation set must not delay correction of an obvious airway or breathing emergency within your competence.

Apply it

During an assessment, a patient develops noisy obstructed breathing and becomes less responsive. Call for urgent assistance and address the airway immediately, then reassess breathing and circulation instead of completing the admission questions.

Common pitfall: Finishing every assessment section before acting mistakes sequence for paperwork. ABCDE requires immediate treatment of life-threatening findings and repeated assessment of the response to care.

Resuscitation Council UK: The ABCDE Approach

6.How should observation trends influence escalation?

Observations gain meaning from the person's condition, baseline and direction of change. A rising respiratory rate or increasing oxygen requirement can indicate deterioration even when another measurement appears reassuring. Record measurements accurately, compare previous values and use the relevant escalation system. Clinical concern remains important alongside any score. Recheck questionable readings promptly, but do not postpone help when the patient looks seriously unwell or the overall pattern is worsening.

Apply it

A patient's respiratory rate rises across successive observations while they become more breathless, although their blood pressure remains similar. Reassess using ABCDE, communicate the trend and request timely review rather than focusing only on blood pressure.

Common pitfall: A single reassuring measurement cannot cancel a deteriorating clinical pattern. Likewise, a numerical score does not replace judgement when appearance, symptoms or treatment requirements cause concern.

Resuscitation Council UK: The ABCDE Approach · Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria

7.How should pain assessment guide both treatment and review?

Pain assessment combines the person's report with location, character, onset, severity, associated symptoms and effects on activity. Use a suitable pain scale consistently so that reassessment is comparable. A score describes intensity but does not establish the cause or exclude urgent illness. Ask what relief would allow the person to do, then evaluate pain and function after intervention. Adapt communication when verbal reporting is difficult rather than assuming pain is absent.

Apply it

After analgesia, a patient reports pain falling from seven to four but still cannot take a comfortable deep breath. Record the improvement and remaining functional limitation, reassess associated findings and consider whether further review is needed.

Common pitfall: Treating a lower score as complete success can overlook persistent functional impairment. Conversely, visible calmness alone does not invalidate a person's report of significant pain.

Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria

8.How do nutritional findings translate into a MUST risk score and care plan?

The Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool (MUST) combines three scores. BMI is weight in kilograms divided by height in metres squared: above 20 scores 0; 18.5–20 scores 1; below 18.5 scores 2. Unintentional weight loss over the previous 3–6 months is calculated as (previous weight − current weight) ÷ previous weight × 100: below 5% scores 0; 5–10% scores 1; above 10% scores 2. Add 2 for acute disease only when the patient is acutely ill and has had, or is likely to have, no nutritional intake for more than five days; otherwise add 0. Total scores identify low risk at 0, medium risk at 1 and high risk at 2 or more. Low risk requires routine care and repeat screening; medium risk requires a three-day intake record and action if intake is inadequate; high risk requires nutritional treatment, goals and dietitian or nutrition-team involvement. These thresholds and actions come from [BAPEN's original MUST documentation](https://www.bapen.org.uk/pdfs/must/must_full.pdf).

Apply it

An adult is 1.60 m tall and now weighs 50 kg, compared with 56 kg three months ago. BMI = 50 ÷ 1.60² = 19.5 kg/m², scoring 1. Unintentional loss = 6 ÷ 56 × 100 = 10.7%, scoring 2. They continue eating and do not meet the acute-disease criterion, scoring 0. Total 3 means high risk. Arrange dietetic assessment, record intake, set nutritional goals and review the inpatient plan weekly. Investigate painful chewing and provide appropriate oral care and eating support.

Common pitfall: Use the previous weight as the percentage-loss denominator. Acute illness alone does not earn the acute-disease score. A higher BMI does not cancel significant weight loss, and the screening category does not explain why intake is inadequate.

Test of Competence: Nursing (all fields) candidate information booklet · rn1-adult-nursing-marking-criteria-sept-2026.pdf

9.How does pressure-risk assessment identify a need for prevention?

Pressure injury risk rises when sustained pressure is combined with limited movement and reduced ability to recognise or relieve discomfort. Assess mobility, skin condition and areas exposed to pressure, including contact with equipment. Look for changes in colour, temperature, firmness or pain; redness may be less obvious on darker skin. Translate the findings into an individual prevention plan and review risk when illness, mobility or support needs change.

Apply it

An adult who usually walks independently becomes bedbound after an acute illness. Reassess pressure risk and inspect vulnerable skin, then arrange assistance with repositioning and appropriate pressure relief rather than retaining the admission assessment unchanged.

Common pitfall: An earlier low-risk assessment is not permanent protection. Acute immobility or new equipment can change risk, and visible redness is not the only concerning skin finding.

NHS: Pressure ulcers · Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria

10.Why must fluid assessment extend beyond the chart total?

A fluid balance chart records measured or documented intake and output; it does not directly measure circulating volume or total body water. Interpret the balance with symptoms, observations, urine pattern, examination findings and weight changes where available. Missing entries and unmeasured losses limit certainty. A positive chart balance can coexist with clinical deterioration, and a negative balance does not automatically justify extra fluid. The decision depends on the whole assessment.

Apply it

A patient's chart shows a positive balance, but several urine entries are missing and their breathing has worsened. Check the record's completeness, reassess clinically and escalate the findings rather than declaring hydration satisfactory from the total.

Common pitfall: Equating a positive number with adequate hydration turns a recording tool into a diagnosis. A balance is only as reliable as its entries and clinical interpretation.

Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria

11.How can psychosocial concerns alter an otherwise reasonable plan?

Fear, beliefs, responsibilities and available support can determine whether a person can participate in care. Ask what concerns them and what matters most, then explore how those concerns affect treatment, daily activities and recovery. Acknowledging distress does not mean attributing physical symptoms to anxiety. Address urgent physical problems while also identifying emotional and practical needs. A workable plan should reflect the person's circumstances rather than assume that clinical instructions are easy to follow.

Apply it

An adult repeatedly asks to leave because they care for a dependent partner. Explore the immediate concern, assess their clinical needs and involve appropriate support so that treatment decisions can be discussed without dismissing their responsibilities.

Common pitfall: Labelling a patient uncooperative can obscure a solvable practical problem. Equally, recognising anxiety must not replace assessment of new or worsening physical symptoms during care.

Test of Competence: Nursing (all fields) candidate information booklet

12.Which nursing needs should be prioritised in a care plan?

Prioritise needs using immediate threat, severity, likelihood of harm and the person's priorities. A nursing problem should describe the actual need supported by assessment, rather than repeat a medical diagnosis without explaining its consequences. Physiological instability takes precedence over routine tasks, while less urgent needs still require a plan. Select problems relevant to the scenario and connect each to an aim, interventions and review, so the plan shows why care is needed.

Apply it

A breathless patient also wants help arranging transport home. Prioritise assessment and management of breathing, then include coordination needs once immediate safety is addressed. Describe the breathing-related nursing need rather than writing only the diagnosis.

Common pitfall: Choosing the easiest problem to document can displace the most important need. A medical diagnosis alone does not explain the nursing action or its intended outcome.

Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria · Resuscitation Council UK: The ABCDE Approach

13.What makes a person-centred goal measurable?

A measurable goal states the change expected for the person, how it will be recognised and when it will be reviewed. It should be relevant to the identified need, realistic for the clinical situation and agreed with the patient where possible. Distinguish an outcome from an intervention: giving analgesia is an action, while improved comfort during movement is an outcome. Include an observable measure or patient-reported criterion rather than vague improvement.

Apply it

A patient wants to sit out for lunch despite movement-related pain. Agree a goal describing an acceptable pain level and ability to transfer with assistance, with review after the planned pain intervention and before lunch.

Common pitfall: Writing 'administer prescribed treatment' as the goal measures task completion. It does not establish whether the person's symptom, function or other identified need actually improved.

Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria

14.How should interventions connect to an identified need?

An intervention should explain what will be done to address the assessed problem, with enough detail for another nurse to carry it out safely. Connect the action to its rationale and intended outcome, including assistance, monitoring or referral when relevant. Avoid generic instructions that could appear in every care plan. The chosen action must fit the person's preferences, abilities and current risk, and remain within the nurse's competence and authority.

Apply it

A patient cannot reposition independently and has discomfort over a pressure area. Plan assisted position changes, suitable pressure relief and skin review, explaining how each action addresses the specific risk and how the patient's tolerance will be assessed.

Common pitfall: A long list of standard interventions can appear comprehensive while missing the actual barrier. Each action should have a clear relationship to the assessed need.

Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria · The Code: Professional standards of practice and behaviour

15.When should a care plan be reviewed?

Review timing should match the urgency of the problem, expected response to treatment and possibility of deterioration. Record an evaluation time or date rather than leaving review indefinite. A planned review does not justify waiting when the patient's condition changes. At review, compare current findings with the original need and goal, then continue, adapt or escalate care. A plan remains useful only when it responds to new information and the person's progress.

Apply it

A plan schedules review of pain after an intervention, but the patient develops new severe discomfort before that time. Reassess immediately and seek appropriate help rather than waiting for the written evaluation point.

Common pitfall: Treating a review date as a restriction on reassessment can delay recognition of deterioration. Scheduled evaluation sets a minimum plan, not permission to ignore change.

Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria · Resuscitation Council UK: The ABCDE Approach

16.What makes consent informed, voluntary and valid when capacity is uncertain?

Explain the proposed intervention, its purpose, expected benefits, material risks and reasonable alternatives, including the consequences of declining care. Material risks include those a reasonable person in this patient's position would consider significant and those important to this particular person; seriousness matters even when probability is low. Invite questions, check understanding and establish a voluntary decision. Consent remains ongoing and can be withdrawn. In England and Wales, the Mental Capacity Act 2005 applies from age 16. Presume capacity and provide practicable support before assessing the particular decision at the time it is needed. Establish whether an impairment or disturbance of mind or brain causes inability to understand relevant information, retain it sufficiently to decide, use or weigh it, or communicate a decision by any means. Diagnosis, communication difficulty or an unwise choice alone does not establish incapacity.

Apply it

An adult with hearing loss refuses a proposed injection. Provide working hearing aids, a quiet setting and an accessible explanation of benefits, material risks and alternatives. Ask them to explain their understanding and reasoning. If they can understand, retain, weigh and communicate the choice, respect their refusal even if clinicians disagree. By contrast, delirium that prevents weighing the consequences despite support may establish incapacity for that decision at that time. Document the evidence and support provided; any subsequent treatment decision must address best interests, the least restrictive option and any applicable advance refusal or legally authorised decision-maker.

Common pitfall: A signature does not replace informed discussion, and earlier consent does not authorise continuing after withdrawal. Relatives can support communication and describe preferences, but relationship alone gives no authority to consent for an adult. Do not apply England and Wales legislation indiscriminately across the UK.

The Code: Professional standards of practice and behaviour · Mental Capacity Act - Health Research Authority · Openness and honesty when things go wrong: The professional duty of candour

17.Which prescription checks must precede administration?

Before administration, establish that the prescription is valid, legible and sufficiently complete for the intended patient and medicine. Check the medicine, dose, route, timing, relevant administration history and any instructions or contraindicating information. Resolve ambiguity rather than infer what the prescriber probably intended. The presence of a medicine on the chart does not remove the nurse's responsibility to recognise a discrepancy, confirm identity and allergy status, and decide whether administration is safe.

Apply it

A prescription names a medicine and frequency but leaves the route unclear, while more than one formulation is available. Withhold that administration and obtain clarification through the appropriate prescriber rather than selecting a familiar route.

Common pitfall: Familiarity with a usual regimen cannot repair an incomplete prescription. Guessing creates an avoidable medication risk even when the guessed treatment later proves to be correct.

Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria · The Code: Professional standards of practice and behaviour

18.How should conflicting allergy information change medicine administration?

Check allergy status with the patient and the relevant clinical record before giving a medicine. Establish the substance and nature of any reported reaction rather than recording an unexplained label. If the patient's account conflicts with the chart, treat the discrepancy as unresolved safety information and clarify it before administering a potentially implicated medicine. A blank allergy box is not equivalent to a confirmed absence of allergies, and a prescription does not override an allergy concern.

Apply it

The chart records no known allergies, but the patient describes swelling after the prescribed antibiotic on a previous admission. Pause administration, establish the reaction history and alert the prescriber so that the discrepancy can be assessed and documented.

Common pitfall: Assuming that the prescriber has already reconciled every allergy can perpetuate an error. Conversely, do not independently redefine a reported reaction without appropriate assessment and documentation.

Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria

19.How can unit-based calculation prevent a medication error?

A safe calculation matches the prescribed amount to the concentration or strength available, keeping units consistent throughout. For a liquid, required volume equals prescribed dose divided by concentration expressed as dose per volume. Convert units before calculating, then check whether the result is plausible and measurable with appropriate equipment. Arithmetic confirms a quantity; it does not establish that the prescription, route, formulation or clinical decision is appropriate for the individual patient.

Apply it

A valid prescription requires 300 mg of an oral medicine supplied as 150 mg in 5 mL. Calculate 300 ÷ 150 × 5 = 10 mL, then complete the remaining medicine and patient checks before administration.

Common pitfall: A mathematically correct answer can still be unsafe if the wrong concentration or units were used. Do not let confidence in arithmetic replace the full administration assessment.

Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria

20.How should a nurse respond when a patient refuses medicine?

A capacitous adult can refuse treatment, including prescribed medicine. Explore the reason without pressure, explain relevant benefits and risks in understandable language, and check understanding. Address a remediable concern, such as uncertainty or difficulty swallowing, through appropriate review rather than altering treatment independently. Record the refusal accurately and communicate clinically important omissions. Respect for refusal does not mean abandoning the patient; continue assessment and offer appropriate alternatives through the care team.

Apply it

A patient refuses a tablet because it previously caused severe nausea. Listen to the concern, explain the intended treatment and contact the appropriate clinician about options. Record the refusal rather than signing that the dose was given.

Common pitfall: Hiding medicine in food to secure compliance bypasses the person's decision and requires a distinct lawful process where applicable. Routine refusal does not authorise covert administration.

The Code: Professional standards of practice and behaviour · Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria

21.Why must medicine administration include monitoring for response?

Giving a medicine completes an action, not the whole treatment episode. Evaluate the intended effect and watch for adverse effects using observations relevant to that medicine and the patient's condition. Establish a baseline where appropriate so that change can be interpreted. Document administration only after it occurs, then record significant responses and communicate concerns. A medicine that improves one symptom may still cause another problem requiring reassessment or escalation.

Apply it

After prescribed analgesia, a patient reports less pain but becomes unusually difficult to rouse. Assess using ABCDE and obtain urgent help rather than recording pain relief as an uncomplicated treatment success without considering the altered responsiveness.

Common pitfall: Looking only for the intended benefit can miss harm. A completed medication signature does not establish that the patient tolerated treatment or achieved the care goal.

Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria · Resuscitation Council UK: The ABCDE Approach

22.How does evaluation distinguish improvement from task completion?

Evaluation compares the person's current state with the starting assessment and agreed outcome. State whether the goal was achieved, partly achieved or unmet, using relevant evidence and the patient's perspective. Then explain what care should continue, change or be escalated. Listing interventions performed is insufficient because the patient may remain unwell despite correct task completion. Evaluation also identifies new problems and whether the original explanation or plan needs reconsideration.

Apply it

A patient received repositioning assistance and pressure relief, but a painful skin change persists. Evaluate the skin finding and comfort against the goal, arrange further assessment and revise the plan rather than merely listing completed repositioning.

Common pitfall: An intervention record answers what was done; evaluation answers what happened to the person. Conflating them conceals unmet goals and the need to adapt care.

Preparing for your OSCE: All nursing fields · Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria

23.How should SBAR communicate an actionable concern?

SBAR organises communication into Situation, Background, Assessment and Recommendation. State who you are, identify the patient and make the immediate concern clear. Give only relevant background, describe current findings and trends, then request the action or review needed. Include urgency rather than expecting the listener to infer it. Structured communication supports prioritisation but does not require delaying emergency assistance until every section is polished or every historical detail is available.

Apply it

When calling about worsening breathlessness, identify the patient, describe the deterioration and relevant history, give current observations and treatment, and explicitly request urgent bedside review. Confirm the response and what to do if the condition worsens.

Common pitfall: A detailed history without a recommendation can leave responsibility unclear. Conversely, saying only that someone is unwell deprives the receiving clinician of evidence needed to prioritise.

Resuscitation Council UK: The ABCDE Approach · Preparing for your OSCE: All nursing fields

24.Which discharge information supports continuity of care?

Discharge communication should connect ongoing needs with a clear plan that the person and receiving team can use. Explain relevant medicines, self-care, follow-up and signs that require help, checking understanding rather than simply handing over paperwork. Identify practical barriers such as limited support or difficulty managing treatment. Share accurate, relevant information with appropriate professionals, and clarify responsibility for outstanding actions so that care does not become fragmented at transfer.

Apply it

Before discharge, a patient cannot explain how to obtain follow-up or what to do if symptoms return. Clarify the plan, check understanding in their own words and coordinate unresolved support needs with the receiving team.

Common pitfall: Providing a leaflet does not demonstrate understanding or resolve practical barriers. An unassigned follow-up task can be missed even when several professionals know that it exists.

The Code: Professional standards of practice and behaviour · Test of Competence: Nursing (all fields) candidate information booklet

Clinical skills40% of stations: 4/10; score weighting not stated

25.When is hand hygiene needed during a sequence of care?

Hand hygiene interrupts transfer of microorganisms between people, surfaces and vulnerable sites. Important moments include before touching a patient, before a clean or aseptic procedure, after body-fluid exposure risk, after touching a patient and after touching their surroundings. A new hand hygiene indication can arise within one encounter, especially when moving from a contaminated activity to a clean task. Gloves do not remove these indications, because hands can become contaminated during use or removal.

Apply it

After helping a patient use a commode, a nurse prepares to handle a vascular access connection. Remove used protective equipment and perform hand hygiene before the aseptic task rather than continuing because the patient has not changed.

Common pitfall: Cleaning hands only on entering and leaving a bed space misses changes in risk during care. The next task, not merely the location, determines the indication.

National infection prevention and control manual for England, V2.12

26.Which hand-cleaning method fits the contamination risk?

Alcohol-based hand rub is appropriate for many routine care indications when hands are visibly clean. Soap and water are needed when hands are visibly soiled and in circumstances where physical removal is required, including relevant diarrhoeal illness risks. Cover all hand surfaces and complete the selected method properly; allow hands to dry before proceeding. Choosing a method depends on contamination and infection risk rather than convenience or the availability of gloves.

Apply it

A nurse finishes care with visible material on their hands and reaches for hand rub. Use soap and water instead, then dry thoroughly before continuing with clean care or putting on new gloves for a further indicated task.

Common pitfall: Alcohol hand rub is not a universal substitute for washing visibly dirty hands. Wearing gloves over contaminated or wet hands does not correct inadequate hand hygiene.

National infection prevention and control manual for England, V2.12

27.How should glove use follow exposure risk?

Select gloves when the task creates a relevant exposure risk, such as contact with blood, body fluids, mucous membranes or non-intact skin. Use the glove type appropriate to the procedure, change gloves between contaminated and clean activities, and remove them promptly after the task. Gloves can transfer organisms to equipment and other surfaces. They supplement hand hygiene and appropriate technique rather than creating a continuously clean barrier throughout an encounter.

Apply it

After handling a used drainage container with gloves, a nurse intends to open a clean dressing pack. Remove the contaminated gloves, perform hand hygiene and select the protection required for the next procedure before touching clean supplies.

Common pitfall: Keeping gloves on for an entire encounter can spread contamination widely. More glove use is not automatically safer when indications, changes and hand hygiene are neglected.

National infection prevention and control manual for England, V2.12

28.What does aseptic non-touch technique protect?

Aseptic non-touch technique protects key sites, such as an insertion site, and key parts that will contact those sites or sterile fluid pathways. Identify these before starting, organise equipment and avoid touching them directly. Use the appropriate aseptic field and protective measures for the procedure's complexity. The central mechanism is preventing microorganisms from reaching vulnerable sites; simply wearing gloves or opening sterile packaging does not make subsequent handling aseptic.

Apply it

While preparing a dressing procedure, identify the wound-contact surface and equipment tips as protected areas. Arrange supplies so they can be used without touching these parts, and maintain their protection throughout the procedure from preparation to disposal.

Common pitfall: Sterile equipment becomes contaminated through inappropriate contact. A glove is not automatically sterile, and even a sterile glove should not touch unrelated contaminated surfaces during care.

Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria · National infection prevention and control manual for England, V2.12

29.How should a break in asepsis be corrected?

When a key part or site is contaminated, stop the affected step and restore asepsis before continuing. Replace contaminated single-use equipment and re-establish a suitable field when necessary. The correction depends on what was touched and what it will contact next. Acknowledging the breach allows a safe response; continuing because the procedure is nearly complete preserves the contamination pathway and may expose the patient to avoidable infection risk.

Apply it

A sterile connector tip brushes against a used bedside surface before attachment. Keep it away from the patient, replace the contaminated item and restore the aseptic setup rather than wiping it casually and completing the connection.

Common pitfall: A brief touch is still relevant when it contaminates a key part. Speed, visual cleanliness or the absence of an immediate problem cannot establish continued sterility.

Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria

30.Why does aseptic preparation include the workspace?

An organised workspace reduces unnecessary movement and contact with contaminated surroundings during a procedure. Prepare a suitable cleaned surface, check packaging integrity and expiry information, and arrange the required equipment before exposing protected parts. Separate used items from clean supplies. These steps reduce opportunities for contamination and interruption, but do not replace continued attention to key parts and key sites. An initially clean field can still be compromised by later handling.

Apply it

A nurse starts a dressing change before gathering all supplies and repeatedly reaches into nearby drawers. Pause safely and organise the necessary equipment so that protected parts remain covered and the procedure can continue without avoidable interruptions.

Common pitfall: A tidy field is not proof of asepsis. Packaging checks and surface preparation matter, but subsequent contact can still contaminate the equipment or vulnerable patient site.

Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria · National infection prevention and control manual for England, V2.12

31.Where should a catheter urine specimen be collected?

Collect a catheter urine specimen from the designated sampling port using the appropriate aseptic method, rather than from the drainage bag. Urine standing in the bag can contain contamination or changes that make it less representative of urine in the bladder. Preserve the closed drainage system and use equipment compatible with the catheter port. Follow the port's cleaning and sampling procedure without unnecessarily disconnecting the catheter from its drainage tubing.

Apply it

A urine culture is requested for a catheterised adult. Identify the sampling port, prepare it correctly and obtain the specimen aseptically into the appropriate container, maintaining the closed system rather than emptying urine from the drainage bag.

Common pitfall: The drainage bag offers convenient access but a poorer specimen source. Disconnecting the system to collect urine also introduces an unnecessary route for contamination and infection.

Gloucestershire Hospitals NHS Foundation Trust: Catheter urine · Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria

32.How does specimen handling preserve diagnostic usefulness?

A specimen is useful only when the sample, patient details and clinical request remain correctly linked. Use the appropriate container, avoid contaminating its interior and label the specimen accurately at collection. Record the collection source and relevant clinical information so that the laboratory can interpret the request. Arrange prompt transport according to the laboratory's requirements. A technically good sample cannot compensate for incorrect identity or unclear collection information.

Apply it

Two catheter specimens are being collected on the same ward. Complete each collection and identification process with the correct patient before moving to the next, and state that the sample is catheter urine on the request.

Common pitfall: Labelling several containers later from memory creates a patient-identification risk. The same appearance of two urine samples provides no reliable way to recover their identities.

Gloucestershire Hospitals NHS Foundation Trust: Catheter urine · Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria

33.How is a recorded fluid balance calculated?

For a defined period, recorded fluid balance equals total recorded intake minus total recorded output. Add each category once, use consistent units and retain the sign of the result. A positive value means recorded intake exceeded recorded output; a negative value means the reverse. State the interval and units clearly. This arithmetic describes the chart, while assessment of fluid status additionally requires clinical findings and recognition of missing or unmeasured losses.

Apply it

During one shift, intake is 750 mL orally and 500 mL intravenously. Recorded output is 900 mL urine and 150 mL vomit. Intake is 1,250 mL, output 1,050 mL and recorded balance positive 200 mL.

Common pitfall: Subtracting intake from output reverses the sign. A correct total also remains misleading if entries from different periods or inconsistent measurement units were combined without correction.

Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria

34.Which recording errors make a fluid chart unreliable?

A chart becomes unreliable when fluids are omitted, duplicated, assigned to the wrong period or recorded as measured when they were only estimated. Record what was actually taken or lost, rather than what was offered or prescribed. Clearly distinguish an unknown amount from zero. Reconcile discrepancies while information is available and explain uncertainty during handover. A neat final balance does not repair inaccurate source entries or establish that all relevant losses were captured.

Apply it

A jug contained 1,000 mL, but 400 mL remains at the end of the recording period and no other use occurred. Record 600 mL consumed, rather than counting the full jug as intake because it was supplied.

Common pitfall: A blank urine entry does not prove no urine was passed. Replacing missing data with zero creates false precision and can materially distort the recorded balance.

Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria

35.When should an unresponsive adult be treated as in cardiac arrest?

Suspect cardiac arrest when an adult is unresponsive and is not breathing normally. Slow, irregular gasps are abnormal breathing and must not be mistaken for effective respiration. Activate emergency assistance, arrange an automated external defibrillator and start resuscitation according to current guidance and your training. Recognition should be rapid; prolonged attempts to classify occasional gasps can delay chest compressions. Continue to follow the emergency response and defibrillator instructions as help arrives.

Apply it

An adult collapses, does not respond and makes occasional noisy gasps without normal breathing. Activate the emergency response and begin CPR, while another person brings the defibrillator, instead of waiting for the gasps to become more regular.

Common pitfall: Any breathing movement is not necessarily normal breathing. Agonal gasps can occur in cardiac arrest and should not reassure the rescuer or delay the emergency response.

Resuscitation Council UK: Adult basic life support Guidelines 2025

36.What characterises effective adult chest compressions?

Adult chest compressions should be delivered at 100–120 per minute to a depth of 5–6 cm, with complete chest recoil and minimal interruption. Position the hands correctly on the lower half of the sternum and avoid leaning between compressions. Adequate depth and recoil support blood flow during arrest; a fast rate alone is insufficient. Use available feedback and switch compressors when possible before fatigue significantly reduces compression quality.

Apply it

A rescuer is compressing rapidly but shallowly and keeps pressure on the chest between strokes. Coach a rate of 100–120 per minute, depth of 5–6 cm and full recoil, while arranging a timely compressor change.

Common pitfall: Faster compressions are not automatically better. Excessive speed, shallow depth or leaning can compromise effective circulation despite the appearance of vigorous resuscitation efforts during the arrest.

Resuscitation Council UK: Adult basic life support Guidelines 2025

37.How should breaths and defibrillator use minimise CPR interruption?

For trained rescuers providing adult basic life support, use 30 compressions followed by two breaths, giving enough air for visible chest rise and avoiding excessive ventilation. Apply an available automated external defibrillator promptly and follow its instructions. Keep interruptions as short as possible, ensure nobody touches the patient during analysis or shock, and resume compressions promptly when instructed. The device supports the response but does not replace continuing high-quality CPR.

Apply it

A defibrillator arrives while CPR is underway. Continue compressions while pads are prepared where possible, clear the patient for analysis and any advised shock, and restart compressions promptly rather than pausing for an extended equipment discussion.

Common pitfall: Waiting for the defibrillator before starting CPR wastes time. Repeated long pauses for breaths or device preparation reduce compression delivery and can undermine the resuscitation attempt.

Resuscitation Council UK: Adult basic life support Guidelines 2025

38.Why must initial nasogastric tube position be confirmed?

A nasogastric tube can enter the respiratory tract or otherwise lie outside the intended gastric position. Giving feed, water or medicine before reliable confirmation can therefore cause serious harm. Initial placement requires an accepted confirmation method, using aspirate pH or appropriately interpreted radiography as indicated. An insertion aid, apparently smooth passage or absence of coughing does not replace that check. Do not flush or use the tube while initial position remains unconfirmed.

Apply it

A newly inserted tube passes easily and the patient does not cough, but no acceptable position check has been obtained. Keep the tube unused and arrange the next required confirmation step before introducing water, medicine or feed.

Common pitfall: Comfortable insertion is not proof of gastric placement. A placement device can assist insertion without replacing the accepted initial position checks required before the tube is used.

NHS England: Placement devices for nasogastric tube insertion do not replace initial position checks · Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria

39.Which nasogastric aspirate result permits progression through the safety pathway?

In the initial placement pathway, a gastric aspirate pH within the accepted safe range of 1–5.5 supports gastric placement when obtained and tested correctly. An aspirate above 5.5, an unreadable result or inability to obtain aspirate does not provide that confirmation. Keep the tube unused and obtain the required further assessment, including radiography when indicated. Never substitute an air-insufflation sound or external tube length alone for an accepted position check.

Apply it

A new tube yields aspirate with pH 6.0. Explain that this does not meet the accepted pH confirmation range, withhold all tube use and arrange further confirmation through the nasogastric safety pathway before feeding.

Common pitfall: A pH only slightly above the accepted limit is still outside it. Adjusting the interpretation to avoid delay defeats the purpose of the placement safety check.

Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria · NHS England: Placement devices for nasogastric tube insertion do not replace initial position checks

40.Why should hands be washed and dried before fingertip glucose testing?

Material on the fingertip can contaminate a capillary sample and distort the result. Sugar residues are particularly important because they can produce a falsely elevated reading. Ask the patient to wash and dry their hands before sampling, following the device procedure. Drying prevents dilution and supports a suitable sample. Prepare the meter and strip correctly, check identity and use the approved sampling technique so that the value represents the patient rather than contamination.

Apply it

A patient has just eaten fruit and needs a fingertip glucose measurement. Ask them to wash and thoroughly dry their hands before sampling rather than wiping away a visible drop and assuming the skin is suitable.

Common pitfall: A clinically surprising high result may reflect contaminated fingers. Repeating the test on another unwashed finger can reproduce the error rather than confirm the patient's glucose.

RDaSH: Glucometer nova StatStrip Xpress 2 procedure

41.How should an unexpected glucose result be handled?

Interpret a point-of-care glucose result alongside symptoms and the patient's condition. If the result is unexpected, assess for immediate danger while checking sampling quality, meter readiness and strip validity. Repeat or confirm through the appropriate pathway when needed, without delaying urgent treatment of a symptomatic emergency. A device value is evidence to evaluate, not permission to ignore the person. Document the result, relevant symptoms, actions and any confirmation obtained.

Apply it

A patient appears acutely unwell, but the displayed result conflicts with their clinical presentation. Assess urgently, summon appropriate assistance and check the testing process while arranging confirmation rather than dismissing the symptoms because of one reading.

Common pitfall: Technical troubleshooting must not delay emergency care. Conversely, changing treatment solely on an implausible isolated reading without checking the sampling process can introduce a different avoidable error.

RDaSH: Glucometer nova StatStrip Xpress 2 procedure · Resuscitation Council UK: The ABCDE Approach

42.How is a technically valid peak flow blow performed?

Peak expiratory flow measures the fastest airflow achieved during a forceful expiration. Reset the meter, adopt an appropriate upright position, take a full breath in, seal the lips around the mouthpiece and blow out as hard and fast as possible. Keep fingers clear of the moving indicator and avoid blocking the mouthpiece. The required effort is a rapid blast, rather than a prolonged gentle exhalation, so explanation and demonstration materially influence measurement quality.

Apply it

A patient breathes out slowly for several seconds into the meter and obtains a low value. Explain and demonstrate a short, hard, fast blow after a full inspiration, then repeat using correct positioning and a sealed mouthpiece.

Common pitfall: A slow sustained expiration measures a different performance from the required explosive effort. A low value from poor technique should not be accepted uncritically as physiological deterioration.

NHS: Peak flow test

43.Which peak flow reading should be recorded?

Perform three peak flow attempts using correct technique and record the highest reading, rather than the average or final attempt. Reset the indicator before each blow and repeat instruction when an attempt is clearly invalid. Record the value with its units and relevant context so that comparisons are meaningful. Interpretation should consider the person's established reference and clinical condition; a technically satisfactory number does not replace assessment of breathlessness or other concerning symptoms.

Apply it

Three technically satisfactory blows produce 310, 350 and 330 L/min. Record 350 L/min as the result, and document relevant circumstances such as treatment timing when these are needed for comparison with earlier measurements.

Common pitfall: Averaging the three readings lowers the reported peak and does not follow the test method. Recording only the last attempt can similarly discard the best valid performance.

NHS: Peak flow test

44.How should used sharps be disposed of safely?

Dispose of used sharps immediately at the point of use into an appropriate sharps container. Avoid recapping, unnecessary manipulation or carrying an exposed sharp to another location. Position the container safely before beginning the procedure, observe its fill limit and use available safety features according to their instructions. The mechanism is removal of opportunities for accidental contact; leaving a sharp on a tray transfers risk to anyone who later handles the area.

Apply it

After a fingertip sample, a nurse considers leaving the lancet on the trolley until documentation is finished. Activate any safety feature and dispose of it immediately in the suitable sharps container before moving to other tasks.

Common pitfall: A temporarily parked sharp remains hazardous even when its user remembers it. Recapping to make transport seem safer creates another opportunity for a needlestick injury during handling.

National infection prevention and control manual for England, V2.12

45.Which checks prevent an injection-route error?

Injection preparation must match the prescribed medicine, formulation, dose and route, with equipment and site appropriate to that route and the individual patient. Intramuscular and subcutaneous administration are not interchangeable simply because both use a needle. Check product information and the procedure requirements before preparation, preserve asepsis and assess the intended site. A correct medicine and dose do not make an injection safe if the formulation, route or equipment is wrong.

Apply it

A nurse notices that a prepared injection is intended for subcutaneous administration while the prescription specifies intramuscular treatment. Stop and resolve the mismatch, including formulation and equipment, instead of treating the difference as a minor technique adjustment.

Common pitfall: Remembering a previous patient's injection technique can encourage an inappropriate shortcut. Route, formulation and patient factors must be checked for the current administration rather than assumed.

Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria · Test of Competence: Nursing (all fields) candidate information booklet

46.How do inhalation technique and medicine delivery differ between a pressurised MDI and a dry-powder inhaler?

Ventolin Evohaler is a pressurised metered-dose inhaler (MDI): depressing the canister releases a propellant-driven aerosol. Sit upright, remove the cap, check the mouthpiece and shake four or five times. Exhale comfortably, seal the lips around the mouthpiece, begin inhaling slowly, then press once just after inhalation starts while continuing steadily and deeply. Hold the breath for a few seconds or as long as comfortable. See [GSK's Ventolin Evohaler leaflet](https://www.medicines.org.uk/emc/files/pil.850.pdf). Symbicort Turbohaler 200/6 contains dry powder and is driven by the patient's inspiratory airflow. Hold it upright to load a dose by turning the grip fully one way and back until it clicks. Exhale away from it, seal the lips and inhale as deeply and as hard as possible; remove it before exhaling. This forceful inspiratory manoeuvre carries powder into the airways without coordinating a canister press. See [AstraZeneca's patient instructions](https://www.medicines.org.uk/emc/product/1327/pil) and [delivery-mechanism description](https://www.medicines.org.uk/emc/product/1327/smpc).

Apply it

For MDI use with a compatible spacer, the RN1 criteria assess shaking, fitting the inhaler, exhaling, sealing around the spacer mouthpiece and releasing a single puff while inhaling slowly and deeply. The single-breath technique uses a slow 2–3-second inhalation followed by an approximately 10-second breath hold. If the patient cannot hold for more than five seconds, the criteria allow five steady tidal breaths. Observe a demonstration: a patient taking a gentle, shallow sip through a loaded Turbohaler needs correction to a deep, forceful inhalation. Rehearse with a training device and reassess performance.

Common pitfall: Do not transfer the MDI's slow inhalation instruction to Turbohaler, or breathe out through the powder device. Absence of a powder taste does not establish failed delivery. Check the prescribed medicine and device separately; these examples compare technique and do not imply interchangeable treatments.

Test of Competence: Nursing (all fields) candidate information booklet · The Code: Professional standards of practice and behaviour · rn1-adult-nursing-marking-criteria-sept-2026.pdf

47.How do repositioning and support surfaces reduce pressure injury risk?

Repositioning redistributes pressure that would otherwise remain concentrated over vulnerable tissue. Suitable mattresses, cushions and other support surfaces help reduce pressure but do not remove the need for individual skin assessment and movement support. Plan assistance around mobility, skin findings, comfort and clinical needs, reviewing effectiveness as the situation changes. There is no single repositioning interval established here for every adult. Prevention must remain responsive to the person's actual risk and tolerance.

Apply it

An immobile adult has a pressure-relieving mattress but still reports localised discomfort. Inspect the area, assist a suitable position change and review the prevention plan rather than assuming the mattress alone has removed the risk.

Common pitfall: Specialist equipment does not make skin checks or movement unnecessary. A universal turning timetable can also miss a person's changing condition, discomfort or need for additional assessment.

NHS: Pressure ulcers

48.How should measurement quality be checked before interpreting observations?

A physiological measurement is useful only when the method and equipment are appropriate and the result fits the clinical context. Check positioning, device application and factors that may distort the reading, then repeat a questionable measurement using a sound technique. Compare the result with symptoms and other observations rather than accepting the display automatically. Technical correction and clinical assessment should occur together when the patient appears unwell, so verification does not become a reason to delay help.

Apply it

An oxygen saturation reading fluctuates while the patient moves, but they also look increasingly breathless. Improve signal quality and reassess breathing while seeking appropriate review, rather than attributing the entire concern to the device or accepting one isolated number.

Common pitfall: An electronic display can create false confidence in a poor measurement. Repeated technical checks are also unsafe when they postpone assessment of obvious clinical deterioration in the patient.

Resuscitation Council UK: The ABCDE Approach · Test of Competence: Adult Nursing Marking Criteria

Professional values and behaviours10% of stations: 1/10; score weighting not stated

49.How does accountability apply when delegating care?

Accountable delegation requires a suitable task, a person with the necessary competence, clear instructions and appropriate supervision. Confirm that the person understands the task and knows when to report concerns, then check the outcome. Delegation does not remove responsibility for the decision to delegate or for ensuring that the result is satisfactory. Likewise, accepting a task requires recognising personal limits and obtaining help before acting beyond competence or available support.

Apply it

A support worker is asked to measure observations on a patient whose condition has changed. Clarify what must be reported immediately, ensure the task is appropriate and review the findings yourself rather than assuming delegation completes the assessment.

Common pitfall: Delegating the task is not delegating all professional responsibility. Familiarity or willingness does not establish competence, and an instruction without follow-up can leave important deterioration unrecognised.

The Code: Professional standards of practice and behaviour

50.What does candour require after a care-related error?

Professional candour requires openness when care has caused harm or has the potential to do so. First address immediate safety, then explain what is known, apologise, describe likely effects and outline actions to put matters right where possible. Distinguish established facts from uncertainty and arrange further updates. Report the incident through the appropriate process and keep an accurate record. Disclosure to the patient and internal reporting serve different purposes; one does not replace the other.

Apply it

A patient receives an unintended medicine dose. Assess and obtain clinical help, inform the appropriate senior staff, explain the known facts honestly to the patient and apologise, while arranging monitoring, incident reporting and updates about unresolved information.

Common pitfall: Waiting until every detail is known can become concealment. An apology should acknowledge what happened without inventing causes, assigning unsupported blame or replacing the required safety response.

Openness and honesty when things go wrong: The professional duty of candour

51.When is sharing confidential information justified?

Protect confidential information and share relevant details only with people who have a legitimate need and appropriate basis to receive them. Check the person's wishes and the purpose of disclosure, using the minimum necessary information. Confidentiality is not absolute when disclosure is required by law or justified to protect safety, but the reason must be clear and documented. A relative's interest or workplace familiarity does not automatically establish entitlement to a patient's information.

Apply it

A patient's neighbour telephones asking for the diagnosis and says the family already knows. Verify neither identity nor entitlement by assertion alone; protect the information and follow the patient's preferences and the appropriate information-sharing process.

Common pitfall: Knowing the patient's name or being a family friend does not authorise disclosure. Conversely, absolute secrecy can obstruct justified information sharing needed to prevent serious harm.

The Code: Professional standards of practice and behaviour

52.How should records distinguish facts, decisions and late entries?

Clinical records should be accurate, clear, attributable and completed at the time of care or as soon as possible afterwards. Include relevant assessment findings, decisions, actions and outcomes, avoiding speculation presented as fact. Identify a late entry honestly and preserve the original record when correcting an error. Documentation supports continuity and accountability; it must show what actually happened rather than what was intended, expected or retrospectively wished to have occurred.

Apply it

A nurse realises that an earlier assessment was not documented. Add a clearly identified late entry stating the assessment time and current entry time, recording only information that can be accurately supported rather than backdating the note.

Common pitfall: Backdating creates a misleading chronology even when the care occurred. Signing for planned administration before it happens similarly converts an intention into an inaccurate clinical record.

The Code: Professional standards of practice and behaviour

53.How should unsafe staffing or care concerns be escalated?

Raise concerns promptly when staffing, resources or practice place people at risk. Describe the actual safety problem, its likely consequences and the assistance or decision required, using the appropriate escalation route. Take reasonable immediate protective action within your competence and keep a factual record of the concern and response. If the first response does not resolve the risk, continue escalation appropriately. Professional responsibility includes speaking up rather than silently normalising unsafe conditions.

Apply it

Several dependent patients need urgent care that the available team cannot safely provide. Inform the responsible senior clinician or manager of the specific unmet needs, request assistance and document the response while prioritising immediate patient safety.

Common pitfall: A general complaint that the ward is busy may not communicate the safety risk. Raising a concern once does not resolve responsibility when the danger persists.

The Code: Professional standards of practice and behaviour

54.Why does equitable care require individual adjustments?

Equitable care respects dignity and avoids discrimination while recognising that people may need different support to access effective care. Identify communication, disability, cultural or other relevant needs without stereotyping. Ask the person what helps, adapt the interaction and challenge discriminatory treatment. Providing exactly the same process to everyone can leave some people unable to participate. Adjustments should improve access and understanding while maintaining the required standard of safe professional care.

Apply it

A colleague suggests skipping an explanation because a patient has a learning disability. Use accessible language and appropriate communication support, check the person's understanding and challenge the assumption rather than excluding them from decisions about their care.

Common pitfall: Treating everyone identically can reproduce unequal access. A diagnosis, accent or cultural background does not establish an individual's preferences, understanding or ability to participate in decisions.

The Code: Professional standards of practice and behaviour

Evidence-based practice10% of stations: 1/10; score weighting not stated

55.Which appraisal questions connect research to a clinical decision?

Begin by identifying the study population, intervention or exposure, comparator and outcomes. Then ask whether the design and conduct support the claimed effect, how large and uncertain that effect is, and whether it matters to patients. Distinguish a measured outcome from a broader conclusion that the study did not test. Appraisal should lead to a proportionate decision, integrating evidence quality with patient circumstances and preferences rather than accepting the authors' recommendation without examining its basis.

Apply it

A report recommends a ward intervention because satisfaction scores improved. Check how patients were selected, what comparison was used and whether outcomes such as sleep or adverse effects were actually measured before recommending the intervention for those purposes.

Common pitfall: A positive conclusion in an abstract is not a complete appraisal. An improvement in one measured outcome cannot establish every claimed benefit or exclude unmeasured harms.

Test of Competence: Nursing (all fields) candidate information booklet · Cochrane Handbook, Chapter 25: Assessing risk of bias in a non-randomized study

56.How is absolute risk reduction interpreted?

For an undesirable outcome, absolute risk reduction is control risk minus intervention risk over the stated follow-up period. Express the difference in percentage points when risks are percentages. It describes how many fewer events occurred per comparable number of people, making baseline risk visible. Do not confuse this difference with relative risk reduction. State the outcome and time period, because an absolute effect without either can be clinically misleading.

Apply it

In a hypothetical six-month study, complications occur in 20 of 100 control patients and 12 of 100 intervention patients. The absolute risk reduction is eight percentage points, equivalent to eight fewer complications per 100 patients during six months.

Common pitfall: Calling a fall from 20% to 12% an eight percent relative reduction confuses two measures. The absolute difference is eight percentage points; the relative reduction is different.

Cochrane Handbook, Chapter 6: Choosing effect measures and computing estimates of effect

57.Why can a large relative effect accompany a small absolute benefit?

Risk ratio divides intervention risk by control risk; relative risk reduction for an undesirable event is one minus that ratio. These measures describe proportional change, so the same relative reduction can yield very different absolute benefits at different baseline risks. Always examine both forms of effect. A 50% relative reduction sounds substantial, but reducing risk from 2% to 1% prevents one event per 100 comparable people over the specified period.

Apply it

Two hypothetical populations experience the same 50% relative reduction. Risk changes from 20% to 10% in one and from 2% to 1% in the other, producing absolute reductions of 10 and one percentage points respectively.

Common pitfall: A relative reduction alone cannot tell a patient how many events are avoided. Omitting baseline risk can make a modest absolute benefit appear much larger than it is.

Cochrane Handbook, Chapter 6: Choosing effect measures and computing estimates of effect

58.How can confounding create a misleading treatment association?

Confounding occurs when a factor related to treatment or exposure also affects the outcome, distorting the apparent effect. In non-randomised care comparisons, people receiving an intervention may differ systematically in illness severity, motivation or available support. A better outcome therefore does not by itself prove that treatment caused the benefit. Assess how important confounders were measured and addressed, recognising that statistical adjustment can leave residual or unmeasured confounding.

Apply it

A ward programme appears to shorten admission, but participants were more mobile and less ill before enrolment. Identify baseline health as a plausible confounder and avoid attributing the entire difference in length of stay to the programme.

Common pitfall: A larger observational sample can produce a more precise biased estimate. Statistical significance does not remove confounding or transform an association into a demonstrated causal effect.

Cochrane Handbook, Chapter 25: Assessing risk of bias in a non-randomized study

59.How does applicability differ from risk of bias?

Risk of bias concerns whether a study's design, conduct or analysis systematically distorts its estimate. Applicability concerns whether its participants, intervention, comparator, outcomes and setting fit the current clinical decision. A well-conducted study can be poorly applicable to a different population or resource setting. Conversely, a highly relevant study can still be biased. Judge these separately before integrating the findings with the person's goals, baseline risks and practical circumstances.

Apply it

A carefully conducted study evaluates an intervention in independent younger adults, but the ward mainly cares for frail adults needing assistance. Recognise the potential applicability gap without claiming that the study must therefore have been badly conducted.

Common pitfall: Similarity to your patients does not prove methodological quality. Differences from your setting do not automatically invalidate the study's estimate for the population it actually investigated.

Cochrane Handbook, Chapter 25: Assessing risk of bias in a non-randomized study

60.How do confidence intervals distinguish a precise small effect from an inconclusive but potentially important effect?

Read the effect measure, direction, point estimate and confidence interval together. The null value is zero for differences and one for ratios. A confidence interval describes uncertainty around an estimated effect under the study's assumptions; it does not describe the spread of individual patient outcomes. For the same outcome scale and confidence level, a narrower interval indicates greater precision. Compare both limits with an explicitly justified threshold for clinical importance, rather than checking only whether the interval crosses the null. An interval excluding the null can still indicate a clinically trivial effect. An interval including the null may remain compatible with important benefit or harm. Confidence intervals address statistical uncertainty; they do not remove bias, confounding or concerns about applicability.

Apply it

Consider two hypothetical trials measuring pain on a 0–10 scale, with lower scores better and the difference defined as intervention minus control. Suppose a one-point difference is the agreed threshold for clinical importance. Trial one estimates −0.3 points, with a 95% confidence interval of −0.5 to −0.1: width 0.4 points. It excludes zero but indicates only a small benefit, below the illustrative clinical threshold. Trial two also estimates −0.3, but its interval is −1.8 to +1.2: width 3.0 points. It includes zero, clinically important benefit and clinically important harm, so the result is inconclusive. Similarly, a risk ratio of 0.8 with an interval of 0.5–1.3 for an adverse event spans a 50% relative reduction through no effect to a 30% relative increase.

Common pitfall: Do not interpret an inconclusive result as proof of no effect, or statistical significance as proof of worthwhile benefit. A narrow interval can precisely estimate a biased result. Recommendations must also consider harms, evidence quality, patient priorities and whether the studied population matches the patient.

Cochrane Handbook, Chapter 6: Choosing effect measures and computing estimates of effect · Cochrane Handbook, Chapter 25: Assessing risk of bias in a non-randomized study · The Code: Professional standards of practice and behaviour

What to focus on during revision

The following are CertMedbry study suggestions. Use the official outline to check the full scope of your examination.

  • Connect assessment findings to prioritised needs, measurable goals, specific interventions and evidence of response across the linked adult nursing APIE sequence.
  • Practise recognising deterioration and making an explicit request for help, including trends, actions already taken and the required urgency.
  • Rehearse contamination boundaries, catheter sampling, nasogastric placement confirmation, glucose preparation and peak flow technique with appropriate equipment.
  • Calculate medicine quantities and recorded fluid balances with visible units, then explain what the result does and does not establish clinically.
  • Apply consent, refusal, confidentiality, candour, accurate records and escalation standards to realistic adult nursing decisions.
  • Appraise research using absolute and relative effects, confounding, applicability and uncertainty, while reviewing the current official materials for the full station scope.

A practical preparation plan

1. Establish the applicable adult nursing scope

Read the RN1 blueprint, nursing specification, Code and current NMC preparation page. Use the updated criteria applicable to your first-attempt date, including replenishments effective from 26 October 2026. Map the full outline before using these selective concepts.

2. Build one coherent APIE record

Use an original adult case to complete assessment, identify relevant nursing needs, write measurable goals and interventions, and produce an evaluation handover. Check that each stage uses the information established in the previous stage.

3. Rehearse observable clinical performance

Practise with a supervisor using appropriate equipment and current station instructions. Explain actions to the simulated patient, obtain consent, protect key parts and sites, and stop to correct contamination or unresolved safety checks.

4. Practise decisions under changed circumstances

Vary the case with a new allergy history, treatment refusal, worsening observations, an unexpected test result or an unmet goal. Explain which finding changes your action and what information you would communicate.

5. Use the learning test diagnostically

Answer the 20 MCQs before reading their explanations. For each error, identify the missed cue and explain why every alternative is less appropriate. Revisit the corresponding concept and rehearse the practical decision.

6. Combine recall with full station rehearsal

Use flashcards for concise active recall, then practise complete stations using the current official timings. Review clinical reasoning, communication, documentation and response to unexpected findings together; knowledge-drill scores alone do not establish readiness.

Use your sample score as a starting point

The free set contains 20 original practice questions. It is a small learning sample, not an official examination or a validated pass prediction. Review each explanation and its source before moving to another topic.

Start the free sample

Official sources and updates

Confirm current eligibility, fees, scheduling and policies directly with the examination provider. CertMedbry is independent and is not endorsed by these organisations. How we handle content and corrections.